‘ Questions Basic.txt 2014 03 Copyright VE2AAY.


‘ If you reproduce this without asking permission and giving due credit, may your CQ calls go forever unanswered.

‘ Sequence of questions is immaterial. They have been regrouped here under arbitrary “Lessons” used by the author.

‘ 2014 06 14 Tweak 1-7-6, 1-10-10, 1-22-1, 1-22-2, 1-25-2, 3-7-5, 3-13-9, 3-21-9, 6-6-3, 8-1-6 and 8-2-1.

Basic Question Bank

{L02} Basics Electricity.

(To be organized)

B-3-16-1 (C) How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply?
A About 120 volts
B About 9 volts
C About 12 volts
D About 240 volts

Also known as a ‘storage cell’, the common Lead-Acid battery has a nominal voltage of 12 volts [ 12.6 to be exact ]

B-3-16-2 (A) Which component has a positive and a negative side?
A A battery
B A potentiometer
C A fuse
D A resistor

Fuses, resistors and potentiometers are not ‘polarized’ (current can flow through them either way). The battery, however, has a positive terminal and a negative terminal.

B-3-16-3 (D) A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a:
A low leakage cell
B memory cell
C primary cell
D storage cell

A ‘storage cell’ can be recharged repeatedly. A ‘primary cell’, such as a common Zinc-Carbon flashlight cell, can only be used once.

B-3-16-4 (B) Which of the following is a source of electromotive force (EMF)?
A carbon resistor
B lithium-ion battery
C germanium diode
D P channel FET

EMF = Electromotive Force, synonym for voltage. Lithium-ion batteries are common in modern portable equipment.

B-3-16-5 (D) An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery:
A has two terminals
B can be completely discharged
C contains an electrolyte
D can be repeatedly recharged

The ‘conventional’ Zinc-Carbon or Alkaline flashlight battery CANNOT be recharged while a ‘storage cell’ like a car battery can be recharged numerous times.

B-3-16-6 (B) An alkaline cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volts. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volts. This is caused by the cell’s:
A voltage capacity
B internal resistance
C electrolyte becoming dry
D current capacity

An ideal battery would supply precisely the same voltage regardless of the current drawn. Real-life batteries exhibit ‘internal resistance’ which causes a drop in voltage when current is drawn. Ever noticed the headlights dim when the starter is cranked on a cold winter day ?

B-3-16-7 (A) An inexpensive primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This type of cell can be recharged:
A never
B twice
C many times
D once

The ‘conventional’ Zinc-Carbon or Alkaline flashlight battery CANNOT be recharged while a ‘storage cell’ like a car battery can be recharged numerous times.

B-3-16-8 (C) Battery capacity is commonly stated as a value of current delivered over a specified period of time. What is the effect of exceeding that specified current?
A The battery will accept the subsequent charge in shorter time
B The voltage delivered will be higher
C A battery charge will not last as long
D The internal resistance of the cell is short-circuited

One important specification of rechargeable batteries is the ‘capacity’ expressed in milliampere-hour (or ampere-hour), a certain amount of current that can be delivered for a given period of time (typically, 20 hours). Exceeding the capacity reduces operating time, the battery is depleted more rapidly.

B-3-16-9 (A) To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in:
A parallel
B series
C parallel resonant
D series resonant

key word: CURRENT. A parallel combination of batteries will permit supplying more current at a given voltage.

B-3-16-10 (D) To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in:
A parallel
B series-parallel
C resonance
D series

key word: VOLTAGE. Adding cells in series brings up the available voltage. However, the total current available from the string remains limited to what a single cell can supply.

B-3-16-11 (C) A lithium-ion battery should never be:
A left disconnected
B left overnight at room temperature
C short-circuited
D recharged

Lithium-ion cells have very low ‘internal resistance’. Hence, they can supply potentially dangerous currents in a short-circuit.

B-4-6-1 (D) How do you find a resistor’s tolerance rating?
A By using Thevenin’s theorem for resistors
B By reading its Baudot code
C By using a voltmeter
D By reading the resistor’s colour code

The last band in a resistor’s colour code identifies ‘tolerance’: an allowed variance in percentage from the nominal value. For example, a GOLD band means 5%.

B-4-6-2 (D) What do the first three-colour bands on a resistor indicate?
A The resistance material
B The power rating in watts
C The resistance tolerance in percent
D The value of the resistor in ohms

The first two bands are significant digits, the third band is a multiplier. The fourth band is tolerance.

B-4-6-3 (A) What would the fourth colour band on a 47 ohm resistor indicate?
A The resistance tolerance in percent
B The value of the resistor in ohms
C The power rating in watts
D The resistance material

The last band in a resistor’s colour code identifies ‘tolerance’: an allowed variance in percentage from the nominal value. For example, a GOLD band means 5%.

B-4-6-4 (A) What are the possible values of a 100 ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance?
A 90 to 110 ohms
B 90 to 100 ohms
C 10 to 100 ohms
D 80 to 120 ohms

100 ohms minus 10% is 90 ohms, 100 ohms plus 10 % is 110 ohms.

B-4-6-5 (B) How do you find a resistor’s value?
A By using the Baudot code
B By using the resistor’s colour code
C By using a voltmeter
D By using Thevenin’s theorem for resistors

The first two bands are significant digits, the third band is a multiplier. The last band is tolerance.

B-4-6-6 (C) A club project requires that a resistive voltage divider provide a very accurate and predictable ratio. Out of the list below, which resistor tolerance would you select?
A 10%
B 20%
C 0.1%
D 5%

Key words: ACCURATE and PREDICTABLE. The smallest possible “tolerance” will ensure that the actual value of the resistors fall within a narrow range of their nominal values.

B-4-6-7 (B) You need a current limiting resistor for a light-emitting diode (LED). The actual resistance is not critical at all. Out of the list below, which resistor tolerance would you select?
A 10%
B 20%
C 0.1%
D 5%

Key words: NOT CRITICAL. A wide tolerance is amply acceptable when the actual value of the resistor is not critical. The extra cost of a precision resistor is not needed.

B-4-6-8 (D) If a carbon resistor’s temperature is increased, what will happen to the resistance?
A It will stay the same
B It will become time dependent
C It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
D It will change depending on the resistor’s temperature coefficient rating

Temperature affects all components and conductors.

B-4-6-9 (C) A gold tolerance band on a resistor indicates the tolerance is:
A 10%
B 1%
C 5%
D 20%

‘Gold’ means 5%.

B-4-6-10 (C) Which colour band would differentiate a 120-ohm from a 1200-ohm resistor?
A Second band
B Fourth band
C Third band
D First band

The first two bands are significant digits, the third band is a multiplier. The fourth band is tolerance. In this example, both first bands read ‘1’, both second bands read ‘2’. The third band multiplies by 10 or 100 as the case may be.

B-4-6-11 (A) Given that red=2, violet=7 and yellow=4, what is the nominal value of a resistor whose colour code reads “red”, “violet” and “yellow”?
A 270 kilohms
B 274 ohms
C 72 kilohms
D 27 megohms

The first two bands are significant digits, the third band is a multiplier. The fourth band is tolerance. In this example, the first two digits are ‘27’ and the multiplier adds four zeroes (or multiplies by 10 000). Result = 270 000 ohms or 270 kilohms.

B-5-1-2 (B) If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000 milliampere current, what reading would it show?
A 3 000 000 amperes
B 3 amperes
C 0.003 ampere
D 0.3 ampere

Milli is a thousandth. A thousand milliamperes is one ampere. Converting from milliamperes to amperes: from small units to larger units, requires fewer digits, decimal point moves to the left by three positions, a thousand times less.

B-5-1-3 (A) If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to measure a 3500 millivolt potential, what reading would it show?
A 3.5 volts
B 0.35 volt
C 35 volts
D 350 volts

Milli is a thousandth. A thousand millivolts is one volt. Converting from millivolts to volts: from small units to larger units, requires fewer digits, decimal point moves to the left by three positions, a thousand times less.

B-5-1-6 (D) A kilohm is:
A 0.1 ohm
B 0.001 ohm
C 10 ohms
D 1000 ohms

Kilohm is a thousand ohms. Converting from kilohm to ohms: from large units to smaller units, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-1-7 (D) 6.6 kilovolts is equal to:
A 660 volts
B 66 volts
C 66 000 volts
D 6600 volts

Kilovolt is a thousand volts. Converting from kilovolts to volts: from large units to smaller units, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-1-8 (C) A current of one quarter ampere may be written as:
A 0.25 milliampere
B 250 microamperes
C 250 milliamperes
D 0.5 amperes

One quarter ampere is 0.25 amperes. Milli is one thousandth. One ampere is a thousand milliamperes. Converting from ampere to milliampere: from large units to smaller units, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-1-9 (B) How many millivolts are equivalent to two volts?
A 0.002
B 2 000
C 0.000002
D 2 000 000

A millivolt is a thousandth of a volt. A volt is one thousand millivolts. Converting from volts to millivolts: from large units to smaller units, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-2-1 (C) Name three good electrical conductors.
A Copper, aluminum, paper
B Copper, gold, mica
C Gold, silver, aluminum
D Gold, silver, wood

Wood, paper and mica do NOT conduct electricity. The best conductors, in descending order, are: Silver, Copper, Gold and Aluminum.

B-5-2-2 (D) Name four good electrical insulators.
A Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon
B Paper, glass, air, aluminum
C Glass, wood, copper, porcelain
D Glass, air, plastic, porcelain

Copper and aluminum are CONDUCTORS. Carbon is a poor conductor, it is used to fabricate resistors.

B-5-2-3 (A) Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use?
A Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat
B Their reactance makes them heat up
C Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up
D They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot

Power is voltage times current, P = E * I. When current flows through a resistor, a ‘voltage drop’ ensues. Volts times amperes become watts. Power is dissipated as heat.

B-5-2-4 (C) What is the best conductor among the following materials?
A silicon
B aluminium
C copper
D carbon

The best conductors, in descending order, are: Silver, Copper, Gold and Aluminum. Carbon is a poor conductor, it is used to fabricate resistors. Silicon is used to make ‘semiconductors’.

B-5-2-5 (B) Which type of material listed will most readily allow an electric current to flow?
A a dielectric
B a conductor
C an insulator
D a semiconductor

As the name implies, a ‘conductor’ readily passes electrical current. An Insulator ( synonym = dielectric ) does not let current flow. A resistor conducts but badly.

B-5-2-6 (C) A length of metal is connected in a circuit and is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a:
A high wattage
B low wattage
C low resistance
D high resistance

Conductors have LOW resistance. They do not oppose current flow.

B-5-2-7 (B) The letter “R” is the symbol for:
A reactance
B resistance
C impedance
D reluctance

R = Resistance, Z = Impedance, X = Reactance.

B-5-2-8 (A) The reciprocal of resistance is:
A conductance
B reactance
C reluctance
D permeability

Reciprocal = ‘the inverse of something’. 1 over resistance yields CONDUCTANCE. Low resistance implies high conductance. High resistance implies little conductance.

B-5-2-9 (A) Voltage drop means:
A the voltage developed across the terminals of a component
B any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage
C the difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer
D the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished

As current flows through electronic components, some voltage is ‘lost’. Remember voltage as ‘pressure’, there is more ‘pressure’ before a resistor than after it: this represents a ‘voltage drop’.

B-5-2-10 (C) The resistance of a conductor changes with:
A current
B humidity
C temperature
D voltage

Temperature affects components and conductors.

B-5-2-11 (D) The most common material used to make a resistor is:
A gold
B mica
C lead
D carbon

Carbon is a poor conductor. Gold and Lead are conductors. Mica is an insulator.

B-5-3-4 (C) Which electrical circuit will have no current?
A A complete circuit
B A closed circuit
C An open circuit
D A short circuit

‘Open’ circuit = no current ( a loop from one side of the voltage source to the other side does NOT exist, the loop is open ). ‘Closed’ circuit = current ( a path exists from one side of the voltage source to the other side, current flows, the loop is closed ). ‘Short circuit’ = heavy current ( a very low resistance path exists between from one side of the voltage source to the other side, large current ensues ).

B-5-3-5 (C) Which electrical circuit draws too much current?
A A closed circuit
B An open circuit
C A short circuit
D A dead circuit

‘Open’ circuit = no current ( a loop from one side of the voltage source to the other side does NOT exist, the loop is open ). ‘Closed’ circuit = current ( a path exists from one side of the voltage source to the other side, current flows, the loop is closed ). ‘Short circuit’ = heavy current ( a very low resistance path exists between from one side of the voltage source to the other side, large current ensues ).

B-5-7-1 (C) What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth?
A Pulse rate
B Inductance
C Frequency
D Speed

Frequency is the number of cycles per second of an Alternating Current (AC). Frequency is expressed in hertz (Hz). One hertz is one cycle per second.

B-5-7-2 (B) Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear?
A 0 - 20 Hz
B 20 - 20 000 Hz
C 20 000 - 30 000 Hz
D 200 - 200 000 Hz

Hz = hertz = cycles per second. Frequencies audible to humans range from 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz. Speech frequencies important for intelligibility in communications range from 300 Hz to 3000 Hz.

B-5-7-3 (D) Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies?
A Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range
B Because this range is too low for radio energy
C Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range
D Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range

Hz = hertz = cycles per second. Frequencies audible to humans range from 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz. Speech frequencies important for intelligibility in communications range from 300 Hz to 3000 Hz.

B-5-7-8 (A) What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?
A 60 cycles per second
B 6000 metres per second
C 60 metres per second
D 6000 cycles per second

Hz = hertz = cycles per second. Frequency is the number of cycles per second of an Alternating Current (AC). Frequency is expressed in hertz (Hz). One hertz is one cycle per second.

B-5-7-9 (A) If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is:
A 0.01 second
B 10 seconds
C 0.0001 second
D 1 second

100 Hz = 100 hertz = 100 cycles per second. The duration of ONE cycle, the “period”, is 1 / frequency. In this example, 1 / 100 Hz yields 0.01 second.

B-5-7-10 (D) Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of:
A 1 Hz
B 100 Hz
C 1000 Hz
D 10 Hz

One cycle in 0.1 second, how many cycles in a second ? The duration of ONE cycle, the “period”, and frequency have an inverse relation: Frequency is 1 / period. In this example, 1 / 0.1 second yields 10 hertz.

B-5-7-11 (D) A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4 kHz signal is referred to as:
A a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal
B the DC component of the main signal
C a dielectric signal of the main signal
D a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal

‘Harmonics’ are integer MULTIPLES (e.g., 2x, 3x, 4x, 5x,…) of a given frequency. The base frequency is referred to as the ‘fundamental’.

B-5-11-9 (D) A force of repulsion exists between two _ magnetic poles.
A unlike
B positive
C negative
D like

key word: REPULSION. ‘Like’ magnetic poles repulse each other. ‘Unlike’ magnetic poles attract one another.

B-5-11-10 (A) A permanent magnet would most likely be made from:
A steel
B copper
C aluminum
D brass

Copper, aluminum and brass are impervious to magnetic fields.

B-5-13-1 (C) How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A In quadrature with the circuit
B In phase with the circuit
C In parallel with the circuit
D In series with the circuit

key word: VOLTMETER. An instrument to measure voltage. The voltmeter is always connected in parallel to measure a difference of potential between two points, across a component, etc.

B-5-13-2 (D) How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A In quadrature with the circuit
B In phase with the circuit
C In parallel with the circuit
D In series with the circuit

key word: AMMETER. Ammeter comes from the words ampere + meter, it is used to measure current. Current flows THROUGH a circuit. The circuit must be ‘broken’ and the ammeter inserted in series with the circuit to measure current. Ammeters have very low resistance and, thus, have little effect once inserted in the circuit.

B-5-13-3 (A) What does a multimeter measure?
A Voltage, current and resistance
B Resistance, capacitance and inductance
C Resistance and reactance
D SWR and power

Common multimeters can measure the three basic electrical units: voltage (E), current (I) and resistance (R).

B-5-13-4 (B) The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is:
A a voltmeter
B an ammeter
C an ohmmeter
D a wattmeter

key word: CURRENT. Ammeter comes from the words ampere + meter, it is used to measure current.

B-5-13-5 (B) Which of the following meters would you use to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver?
A An electrostatic voltmeter
B A DC ammeter
C An RF ammeter
D An RF power meter

key word: CURRENT. Ammeter comes from the words ampere + meter, it is used to measure current.

B-5-13-6 (C) When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as:
A an extra current drain
B an insulator
C a low value resistance
D a perfect conductor

This is a bit of a catch. A PERFECT conductor would exhibit ZERO resistance. An ammeter actually has a very low resistance. [ For example, a 10 A ammeter can have a resistance of 0.005 ohms, a 1 A ammeter can have 0.05 ohms and a 500 mA ammeter can introduce 0.2 ohms of resistance in the circuit. ]

B-5-13-7 (B) When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed:
A in parallel with one of the receiver power leads
B in series with one of the receiver power leads
C in series with both receiver power leads
D in parallel with both receiver power supply leads

Ammeter comes from the words ampere + meter, it is used to measure current. Current flows THROUGH a circuit. The circuit must be ‘broken’ and the ammeter inserted in series with the circuit to measure current. Ammeters have very low resistance and, thus, have little effect once inserted in the circuit.

B-5-13-8 (A) Potential difference is measured by means of:
A a voltmeter
B a wattmeter
C an ohmmeter
D an ammeter

The voltmeter is always connected in parallel to measure a difference of potential between two points, across a component, etc.

B-5-13-9 (C) The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the:
A wattmeter
B voltmeter
C ammeter
D faradmeter

Ammeter comes from the words ampere + meter, it is used to measure current. Current flow THROUGH a circuit. The circuit must be ‘broken’ and the ammeter inserted in series with the circuit to measure current. Ammeters have very low resistance and, thus, have little effect once inserted in the circuit.

B-5-13-10 (A) In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with:
A the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series
B the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel
C both voltmeter and ammeter in series
D both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel

The voltmeter is always connected in parallel to measure a difference of potential between two points, across a component, etc. Ammeter comes from the words Ampere + meter, it is used to measure current. Current flow THROUGH a circuit. The circuit must be ‘broken’ and the ammeter inserted in series with the circuit to measure current. Ammeters have very low resistance and, thus, have little effect once inserted in the circuit.

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{L03a} Ohm’s Law and Power.

B-5-1-5 (C) If you have a hand-held transceiver which puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be?
A 50
B 0.02
C 0.5
D 5

A thousand milliwatts is one watt. Converting from milliwatts to watts: from small units to larger units, requires fewer digits, decimal point moves to the left by three positions, a thousand times less.

B-5-3-1 (B) What is the word used to describe the rate at which electrical energy is used?
A Resistance
B Power
C Current
D Voltage

The watt is the unit used to measure the rate of energy use.

B-5-3-2 (A) If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 100 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest?
A The 100 watt bulb
B They will all be the same
C The 40 watt bulb
D The 60 watt bulb

How fast does each one make the electrical utility meter on the side of your house spin ? The device with the highest wattage spins it the fastest.

B-5-3-3 (D) What is the basic unit of electrical power?
A The ampere
B The volt
C The ohm
D The watt

Power, expressed in watts = voltage, in volts, TIMES current, in amperes. P = E I. Watts = volts amperes. The watt describe how fast electrical energy is used.

B-5-3-6 (D) Power is expressed in:
A volts
B amperes
C ohms
D watts

Power, expressed in watts = voltage, in volts, TIMES current, in amperes. P = E I. Watts = volts amperes. The watt describe how fast electrical energy is used.

B-5-3-7 (C) Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power?
A Voltage and inductance
B Resistance and capacitance
C Voltage and current
D Inductance and capacitance

Power, expressed in watts = voltage, in volts, TIMES current, in amperes. P = E I. Watts = volts amperes. The watt describe how fast electrical energy is used.

B-5-3-8 (D) Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit “watts”?
A Volts and farads
B Farads and henrys
C Amperes and henrys
D Volts and amperes

Power, expressed in watts = voltage, in volts, TIMES current, in amperes. P = E I. Watts = volts amperes. The watt describe how fast electrical energy is used.

B-5-3-9 (D) A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much:
A voltage
B resistance
C current
D power

Power is voltage times current, P = E * I. When current flows through a resistor, a ‘voltage drop’ ensues. Volts times amperes become watts. Power is dissipated as heat.

B-5-3-10 (B) High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by:
A making it shock proof
B allowing heat to dissipate more readily
C allowing higher voltage to be handled
D increasing the effective resistance of the resistor

Resistors are rated for resistance in ohms and safe power dissipation in watts.

B-5-3-11 (C) The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked:
A 2 ohms
B 0.5 watt
C 20 watts
D 100 ohms

Resistors are rated for resistance in ohms and safe power dissipation in watts.

B-5-4-1 (B) If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?
A 25 volts
B 100 volts
C 48 volts
D 52 volts

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes E = RI when solving for E. Voltage = resistance times current. Volts = ohms amperes. 50 ohms * 2 amperes = 100 volts.

B-5-4-2 (D) How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known?
A Current equals resistance multiplied by voltage
B Current equals resistance divided by voltage
C Current equals power divided by voltage
D Current equals voltage divided by resistance

Ohm’s Law is I = E / R, current is voltage divided by resistance. Amperes = volts / ohms.

B-5-4-3 (B) How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known?
A Resistance equals current divided by voltage
B Resistance equals voltage divided by current
C Resistance equals current multiplied by voltage
D Resistance equals power divided by voltage

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes R = E / I when solving for R. Resistance is voltage divided by current. Ohms = volts / amperes.

B-5-4-4 (A) How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known?
A Voltage equals current multiplied by resistance
B Voltage equals current divided by resistance
C Voltage equals resistance divided by current
D Voltage equals power divided by current

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes E = RI when solving for E. Voltage is resistance times current. Volts = ohms amperes.

B-5-4-5 (D) If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit’s resistance?
A 3 ohms
B 12 ohms
C 0.25 ohm
D 48 ohms

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes R = E / I when solving for R. Resistance is voltage divided by current. Ohms = volts / amperes. 12 volts / 0.25 amperes = 48 ohms.

B-5-4-6 (C) Calculate the value of resistance necessary to drop 100 volts with current flow of 0.8 milliamperes:
A 1250 ohms
B 1.25 kilohms
C 125 kilohms
D 125 ohms

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes R = E / I when solving for R. Resistance is voltage divided by current. Ohms = volts / amperes. 100 volts / 0.0008 amperes = 125 000 ohms = 125 kilohms. [ Note that volts divided by milliamperes is kilohm ]

B-5-4-7 (C) The voltage required to force a current of 4.4 amperes through a resistance of 50 ohms is:
A 22.0 volts
B 0.220 volt
C 220 volts
D 2220 volts

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes E = RI when solving for E. Voltage is resistance times current. Volts = ohms amperes. 50 ohms * 4.4 amperes = 220 volts.

B-5-4-8 (D) A lamp has a resistance of 30 ohms and a 6 volt battery is connected. The current flow will be:
A 2 amperes
B 0.5 ampere
C 0.005 ampere
D 0.2 ampere

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ). Current is voltage divided by resistance. Amperes = volts / ohms. 6 volts / 30 ohms = 0.2 amperes.

B-5-4-9 (C) What voltage would be needed to supply a current of 200 milliamperes, to operate an electric lamp which has a resistance of 25 ohms?
A 175 volts
B 225 volts
C 5 volts
D 8 volts

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes E = RI when solving for E. Voltage is resistance times current. Volts = ohms amperes. 25 ohms * 0.200 amperes = 5 volts.

B-5-4-10 (D) The resistance of a circuit can be found by using one of the following:
A R = I/E
B R = E/R
C R = E x I
D R = E/I

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes R = E / I when solving for R. Resistance is voltage divided by current. Ohms = volts / amperes.

B-5-4-11 (D) If a 3 volt battery supplies 300 milliamperes to a circuit, the circuit resistance is:
A 9 ohms
B 5 ohms
C 3 ohms
D 10 ohms

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) becomes R = E / I when solving for R. Resistance is voltage divided by current. Ohms = volts / amperes. 3 volts / 0.300 amperes = 10 ohms.

B-5-5-1 (D) In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors?
A It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor
B It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit
C It is the sum of each resistor’s voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors
D It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor

Each resistor added in parallel to the source draws some current ( in accordance with Ohm’s Law, I = E / R ). The total current that the source must supply becomes the SUM of all these individual currents. Just like in your house, the total current drawn from the utility company is the sum of all the devices turned-on.

B-5-5-2 (C) Three resistors, respectively rated at 10, 15 and 20 ohms are connected in parallel across a 6-volt battery. Which statement is true?
A The voltage drop across each resistance added together equals 6 volts
B The voltage drop across the 20 ohm resistance is greater than the voltage across the 10 ohm resistance
C The current through the 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 20 ohms separate resistances, when added together, equals the total current drawn from the battery
D The current flowing through the 10 ohm resistance is less than that flowing through the 20 ohm resistance

key word: PARALLEL. In a parallel circuit, the total current is the sum of the currents. All resistors are subjected to the same voltage in a PARALLEL circuit. Ohm’s Law tells us that the smaller resistor will draw more current than the others.

B-5-5-3 (D) Total resistance in a parallel circuit:
A depends upon the voltage drop across each branch
B could be equal to the resistance of one branch
C depends upon the applied voltage
D is always less than the smallest resistance

key word: PARALLEL. In a parallel circuit, each added resistor adds to the current drawn from the source. If more and more current is drawn, the total resistance must be going down. In PARALLEL, the total resistance is less than the smallest.

B-5-5-4 (D) Two resistors are connected in parallel and are connected across a 40 volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total current is:
A 40 milliamperes
B 80 amperes
C 40 amperes
D 80 milliamperes

Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ). Each resistor draws this much current: 40 volts divided by 1000 ohms = 0.040 amperes = 40 milliamperes. In PARALLEL, total current is the sum of the currents. Method B: identical resistors in parallel, total resistance is value divided by number. In this case, 1000 / 2 = 500 ohms. 40 volts / 500 ohms = 0.08 amperes = 80 milliamperes.

B-5-5-5 (B) The total resistance of resistors connected in series is:
A equal to the lowest resistance present
B greater than the resistance of any one resistor
C less than the resistance of any one resistor
D equal to the highest resistance present

key word: SERIES. In a series circuit, there is only one current. This current must wrestle with each resistor one after the other. In SERIES, total resistance is the sum of the resistances. The same current flows through all of them.

B-5-5-6 (D) Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series equals:
A 5 ohms
B 10 ohms
C 1 ohm
D 50 ohms

key word: SERIES. In SERIES, total resistance is the sum of the resistances.

B-5-5-7 (D) Which series combination of resistors would replace a single 120 ohm resistor?
A Six 22 ohm
B Two 62 ohm
C Five 100 ohm
D Five 24 ohm

key word: SERIES. In SERIES, total resistance is the sum of the resistances. Five times twenty-four = 120.

B-5-5-8 (B) If ten resistors of equal value were wired in parallel, the total resistance would be:
A 10 + R
B R / 10
C 10 / R
D 10 x R

key word: PARALLEL. In a parallel circuit with IDENTICAL resistors, total resistance is value divided by number. In this example, the value of one R divided by 10.

B-5-5-9 (A) The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel is:
A 17 ohms
B 12 ohms
C 34 ohms
D 272 ohms

key word: PARALLEL. In a parallel circuit with IDENTICAL resistors, total resistance is value divided by number. In this example, 68 / 4 yields 17.

B-5-5-10 (C) Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of resistor B, which means that:
A the voltage across A is twice that across B
B B has half the resistance of A
C A has half the resistance of B
D the voltage across B is twice that across A

key word: PARALLEL. All resistors in a parallel circuit are subjected to the same voltage. Per Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R, current = voltage divided by resistance ), if resistor A draws twice the current of resistor B, it must have half the resistance of Resistor B.

B-5-5-11 (C) The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the:
A source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements
B current in any one of the parallel branches
C sum of the currents through all the parallel branches
D source voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements

key word: PARALLEL. In a parallel circuit, the total current is the sum of the currents. Each branch is subjected to the same voltage and draws a current in accordance with Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R, current = voltage divided by resistance ).

B-5-6-1 (C) Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance?
A For a higher current gain
B For less impedance in the circuit
C For greater power dissipation
D For better response time

Remember that power is voltage times current, P = E * I. A resistor dissipates power into heat. A resistor can only dissipate so much power without burning up: i.e., its power rating. Larger resistors can dissipate more heat.

B-5-6-2 (D) How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 volt DC light bulb that draws 0.2 ampere?
A 60 watts
B 24 watts
C 6 watts
D 2.4 watts

P = E I, power is voltage times current, watts = volts amperes. 12 volts * 0.2 amperes = 2.4 watts [ VDC = volts in a Direct Current circuit ]

B-5-6-3 (B) The DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volts and drawing 500 milliamperes would be:
A 12 watts
B 6 watts
C 20 watts
D 500 watts

P = E I, power is voltage times current, watts = volts amperes. 12 volts * 0.5 amperes = 6 watts.

B-5-6-4 (D) When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in series, the maximum total power that can be dissipated by the resistors is:
A 1 watt
B 1/2 watt
C 4 watts
D 2 watts

This is about POWER RATING, not resistance. Two identical resistors can safely dissipate TWICE as much power as only one. [ Yes, total resistance will be twice as much, but that is immaterial here ]

B-5-6-5 (C) When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can dissipate a maximum total power of:
A 1 watt
B 4 watts
C 2 watts
D 1/2 watt

This is about POWER RATING, not resistance. Two identical resistors can safely dissipate TWICE as much power as only one. [ Yes, total resistance will be half, but that is immaterial here ]

B-5-6-6 (A) If the voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled, how much will the total power change?
A Increase four times
B Decrease to half
C Double
D No change

P = E I, power is voltage times current, watts = volts amperes. Given the proportional relation of current versus voltage stated by Ohm’s Law, if you double voltage in a circuit, current will double. Power is voltage times current, if both double, power has quadrupled ( 4 times more ).

B-5-6-7 (A) Which combination of resistors could make up a 50 ohms dummy load capable of safely dissipating 5 watts?
A Four 2-watt 200 ohms resistors in parallel
B Two 5-watt 100 ohms resistors in series
C Two 2-watt 25 ohms resistors in series
D Ten quarter-watt 500 ohms resistors in parallel

Four 200 ohms @ 2 watts in parallel = 50 ohms @ 8 watts. Two 25 ohms @ 2 watts in series = 50 ohms @ 4 watts. Ten 500 ohms @ 0.25 watts in parallel = 50 ohms @ 2.5 watts. Two 100 ohms @ 5 watts in series = 200 ohms @ 10 watts.

B-5-6-8 (B) A 12 volt light bulb is rated at a power of 30 watts. The current drawn would be:
A 12/30 amperes
B 30/12 amperes
C 18 amperes
D 360 amperes

The Power Law: P = E * I, power is voltage times current. Transformed to solve for I, it becomes I = P / E. In this example, I = 30 watts / 12 volts.

B-5-6-9 (B) If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery, the power consumption would be:
A 100 watts
B 5 watts
C 10 watts
D 20 watts

Two 10 ohm resistors in series present a total resistance of 20 ohms. Use Ohm’s Law ( I = E / R ) to compute current as 10 volts divided by 20 ohms = 0.5 amperes. The Power Law: P = E * I, power is voltage times current. Power for this example becomes 10 volts times 0.5 amperes = 5 watts.

B-5-6-10 (B) One advantage of replacing a 50 ohm resistor with a parallel combination of two similarly rated 100 ohm resistors is that the parallel combination will have:
A lesser resistance and similar power rating
B the same resistance but greater power rating
C the same resistance but lesser power rating
D greater resistance and similar power rating

This is about POWER RATING, not resistance. Two identical resistors can safely dissipate TWICE as much power as only one. Two resistors of 100 ohms in PARALLEL yield a total resistance of 50 ohms ( In a parallel circuit with IDENTICAL resistors, total resistance is value divided by number ).

B-5-6-11 (B) Resistor wattage ratings are:
A variable in steps of one hundred
B determined by heat dissipation qualities
C calculated according to physical size and tolerance rating
D expressed in joules

Materials, shape, construction all interact to determine heat dissipation capabilities. Tolerance is a misleading clue.

B-5-1-1 (C) If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?
A 3 525 000 kHz
B 0.003525 kHz
C 3525 kHz
D 35.25 kHz

Mega is a million, kilo is a thousand. A megahertz is a thousand kilohertz. Converting from megahertz to kilohertz, from large units to smaller, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-1-10 (A) One megahertz is equal to:
A 1 000 kHz
B 100 kHz
C 0.001 Hz
D 10 Hz

Mega is a million, kilo is a thousand. Converting from megahertz to kilohertz, from large units to smaller, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-7-4 (C) Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?
A Hyper
B Super-high
C Radio
D Audio

Frequencies audible to humans range from 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz (AUDIO). Speech frequencies important for intelligibility in communications range from 300 Hz to 3000 Hz. Radio frequencies can reach up to 300 GHz ( 300 000 MHz ): Medium Frequencies 300 kHz - 3000 kHz, High Frequencies 3 MHz - 30 MHz, Very High Frequencies 30 MHz - 300 MHz, Ultra High Frequencies 300 MHz - 3000 MHz, Super High Frequencies 3 GHz - 30 GHz, Extremely High Frequencies 30 GHz - 300 GHz.

B-5-7-5 (B) What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle?
A Wave spread
B Wavelength
C Wave speed
D Waveform

Wavelength: the distance between successive points of equal amplitude and phase on a wave (for example, crest to crest or trough to trough).

B-5-7-6 (B) What happens to a signal’s wavelength as its frequency increases?
A It disappears
B It gets shorter
C It gets longer
D It stays the same

Wavelength (lambda) in metres is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz ( i.e., the speed of light divided by the frequency in hertz ). Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship.

B-5-7-7 (D) What happens to a signal’s frequency as its wavelength gets longer?
A It disappears
B It stays the same
C It goes up
D It goes down

Wavelength (lambda) in metres is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz ( i.e., the speed of light divided by the frequency in hertz ). Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship.

{L03b} Waves, Wavelength, Frequency and Bands.

units

B-5-1-10 (A) One megahertz is equal to:
A 1 000 kHz
B 100 kHz
C 0.001 Hz
D 10 Hz

Mega is a million, kilo is a thousand. Converting from megahertz to kilohertz, from large units to smaller, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

B-5-1-1 (C) If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?
A 3 525 000 kHz
B 0.003525 kHz
C 3525 kHz
D 35.25 kHz

Mega is a million, kilo is a thousand. A megahertz is a thousand kilohertz. Converting from megahertz to kilohertz, from large units to smaller, requires more digits, decimal point moves to the right by three positions, a thousand times more.

names of spectrum

B-5-7-4 (C) Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?
A Hyper
B Super-high
C Radio
D Audio

Frequencies audible to humans range from 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz (AUDIO). Speech frequencies important for intelligibility in communications range from 300 Hz to 3000 Hz. Radio frequencies can reach up to 300 GHz ( 300 000 MHz ): Medium Frequencies 300 kHz - 3000 kHz, High Frequencies 3 MHz - 30 MHz, Very High Frequencies 30 MHz - 300 MHz, Ultra High Frequencies 300 MHz - 3000 MHz, Super High Frequencies 3 GHz - 30 GHz, Extremely High Frequencies 30 GHz - 300 GHz.

concept of wavelength

B-5-7-5 (B) What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle?
A Wave spread
B Wavelength
C Wave speed
D Waveform

Wavelength: the distance between successive points of equal amplitude and phase on a wave (for example, crest to crest or trough to trough).

relationship between frequency and wavelength

B-5-7-7 (D) What happens to a signal’s frequency as its wavelength gets longer?
A It disappears
B It stays the same
C It goes up
D It goes down

Wavelength (lambda) in metres is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz ( i.e., the speed of light divided by the frequency in hertz ). Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship.

B-5-7-6 (B) What happens to a signal’s wavelength as its frequency increases?
A It disappears
B It gets shorter
C It gets longer
D It stays the same

Wavelength (lambda) in metres is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz ( i.e., the speed of light divided by the frequency in hertz ). Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship.

{L04} Inductors and Capacitors.

(to be organized)

B-5-1-4 (C) How many microfarads is 1 000 000 picofarads?
A 1000 microfarads
B 0.001 microfarad
C 1 microfarad
D 1 000 000 000 microfarads

Pico is a millionth of a millionth, micro is a millionth. Converting from picofarads to microfarads: from small units to larger units, requires fewer digits, decimal point moves to the left by SIX positions, a MILLION times less.

B-5-1-11 (A) An inductance of 10 000 microhenrys may be stated correctly as:
A 10 millihenrys
B 100 millihenrys
C 10 henrys
D 1 000 henrys

Micro is a millionth, milli is a thousandth. Converting from microhenrys to millihenrys: from small units to larger units, requires fewer digits, decimal point moves to the left by three positions, a thousand times less.

B-5-9-1 (D) If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance?
A Half the value of one inductor
B The same as the value of either inductor
C The value of one inductor times the value of the other
D Twice the value of one inductor

key words: SERIES INDUCTORS. Inductors (coils) in combinations obey rules similar to resistors. In SERIES, the total value is the sum of the values. In PARALLEL combination with components of IDENTICAL values, the total value is the value of one component divided by the number in the circuit.

B-5-9-2 (B) If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance?
A The value of one inductor times the value of the other
B Half the value of one inductor
C Twice the value of one inductor
D The same as the value of either inductor

key words: PARALLEL INDUCTORS. Inductors (coils) in combinations obey rules similar to resistors. In PARALLEL combination with components of IDENTICAL values, the total value is the value of one component divided by the number in the circuit. In SERIES, the total value is the sum of the values.

B-5-9-3 (D) If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance?
A Twice the value of one capacitor
B The same as the value of either capacitor
C The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
D Half the value of either capacitor

key words: SERIES CAPACITORS. Capacitors behave OPPOSITE TO INDUCTORS. Capacitors add up in parallel combinations BUT the total value is less than the smallest in a series combination. With identical CAPACITORS in SERIES, the total value is the value of one component divided by the number in the circuit.

B-5-9-4 (C) If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance?
A The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
B Half the value of one capacitor
C Twice the value of one capacitor
D The same as the value of either capacitor

key words: PARALLEL CAPACITORS. Capacitors behave OPPOSITE TO INDUCTORS. With CAPACITORS in PARALLEL, the total value is the sum of the values. Picture in your head, the area of the plates growing as more and more capacitors are added in parallel. More plate area, more capacity.

B-5-9-5 (C) What determines the inductance of a coil?
A The coil diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire
B The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically
C The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil
D The core material, the number of turns used to wind the coil and the frequency of the current through the coil

Inductance in a coil is due to the interaction of the magnetic fields from one turn to the others. The ease of setting up a magnetic field through a suitable core material, the relative position of the turns (diameter and length) and the number of turns all contribute to inductance.

B-5-9-6 (B) What determines the capacitance of a capacitor?
A The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating
B The material between the plates, the surface area of the plates, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates
C The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates
D The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type

A simple capacitor is two plates next to one another. The material used as a dielectric to insulate the two plates and the distance between the plates influence the importance of the electric field that can be set-up. The area and number of plates multiply the capacitance effect.

B-5-9-7 (C) If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance?
A The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
B Half the value of either capacitor
C Twice the value of either capacitor
D The same value of either capacitor

key words: PARALLEL CAPACITORS. Capacitors behave OPPOSITE TO INDUCTORS. With CAPACITORS in PARALLEL, the total value is the sum of the values. Picture in your head, the area of the plates growing as more and more capacitors are added in parallel. More plate area, more capacity.

B-5-9-8 (A) To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two:
A 5 millihenry chokes in series
B 20 millihenry chokes in series
C 30 millihenry chokes in parallel
D 5 millihenry chokes in parallel

key words: SERIES INDUCTORS. Inductors (coils) in combinations obey rules similar to resistors. In SERIES, the total value is the sum of the values.

B-5-9-9 (C) Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is:
A 12 microfarads
B 18 microfarads
C 5 microfarads
D 45 microfarads

key words: SERIES CAPACITORS. Capacitors behave OPPOSITE TO INDUCTORS. Capacitors add up in parallel combinations BUT the total value is less than the smallest in a series combination. With identical CAPACITORS in SERIES, the total value is the value of one component divided by the number in the circuit.

B-5-9-10 (D) Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor?
A Two 10 microfarad capacitors
B Twenty 2 microfarad capacitors
C Ten 2 microfarad capacitors
D Two 20 microfarad capacitors

key words: SERIES CAPACITORS. Capacitors behave OPPOSITE TO INDUCTORS. Capacitors add up in parallel combinations BUT the total value is less than the smallest in a series combination. With identical CAPACITORS in SERIES, the total value is the value of one component divided by the number in the circuit. [ capacitors in series might be useful to augment the overall voltage rating ]

B-5-9-11 (B) The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is:
A always greater than the largest capacitor
B always less than the smallest capacitor
C found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors
D found by adding each of the capacitors together

key words: SERIES CAPACITORS. Capacitors behave OPPOSITE TO INDUCTORS. Capacitors add up in parallel combinations BUT the total value is less than the smallest in a series combination. With identical CAPACITORS in SERIES, the total value is the value of one component divided by the number in the circuit.

B-5-10-1 (B) How does a coil react to AC?
A As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

Reactance is opposition. XL = 2 PI f * L. Inductive reactance = two times PI (i.e., 3.14) times frequency in hertz times inductance in henrys. Reactance (opposition) is not influenced by the amplitude of the applied voltage. If frequency goes up, inductive reactance goes up. Intuitively, the higher the frequency (i.e., rate of change), the more significant become the counter-currents induced in adjacent turns.

B-5-10-2 (D) How does a capacitor react to AC?
A As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
B As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
D As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

Reactance is opposition. XC = 1 over ( 2 PI f * C ). Capacitive Reactance = 1 over the product of ‘two times PI (i.e., 3.14) times frequency in hertz times capacitance in farads’. A behaviour opposite to inductors. Reactance (opposition) is not influenced by the amplitude of the applied voltage. If frequency goes up, capacitive reactance goes down. Intuitively, the more frequent the change of polarity (AC changes polarity every half-cycle), the more incessant becomes the charge/discharge current, current never seems to stop, less apparent opposition to current flow.

B-5-10-3 (A) The reactance of capacitors increases as:
A frequency decreases
B applied voltage increases
C applied voltage decreases
D frequency increases

Reactance is opposition. XC = 1 over ( 2 PI f * C ). Capacitive Reactance = 1 over the product of ‘two times PI (i.e., 3.14) times frequency in hertz times capacitance in farads’. A behaviour opposite to inductors. Reactance (opposition) is not influenced by the amplitude of the applied voltage. If frequency goes up, capacitive reactance goes down. Intuitively, the more frequent the change of polarity (AC changes polarity every half-cycle), the more incessant becomes the charge/discharge current, current never seems to stop, less apparent opposition to current flow.

B-5-10-4 (C) In inductances, AC may be opposed by both resistance of winding wire and reactance due to inductive effect. The term which includes resistance and reactance is:
A inductance
B capacitance
C impedance
D resonance

Impedance is measured in ohms. It is the combined effect of reactance(s) and resistance. Resistance affects DC and AC equally. Reactance is a property only present under AC. [ DC = direct current, AC = alternating current ]

B-5-10-5 (D) Capacitive reactance:
A applies only to series RLC circuits
B increases as frequency increases
C increases with the time constant
D decreases as frequency increases

Reactance is opposition. XC = 1 over ( 2 PI f * C ). Capacitive Reactance = 1 over the product of ‘two times PI (i.e., 3.14) times frequency in hertz times capacitance in farads’. A behaviour opposite to inductors. Reactance (opposition) is not influenced by the amplitude of the applied voltage. If frequency goes up, capacitive reactance goes down. Intuitively, the more frequent the change of polarity (AC changes polarity every half-cycle), the more incessant becomes the charge/discharge current, current never seems to stop, less apparent opposition to current flow.

B-5-10-6 (B) Inductive reactance may be increased by:
A an increase in the applied voltage
B an increase in the applied frequency
C a decrease in the applied frequency
D a decrease in the supplied current

Reactance is opposition. XL = 2 PI f * L. Inductive reactance = two times PI (i.e., 3.14) times frequency in hertz times inductance in henrys. Reactance (opposition) is not influenced by the amplitude of the applied voltage. If frequency goes up, inductive reactance goes up. Intuitively, the higher the frequency (i.e., rate of change), the more significant become the counter-currents induced in adjacent turns.

B-5-10-7 (C) What property allows a coil wound on a ferrite core to mitigate the effects of an offending radio signal?
A Low reactance at audio frequencies
B High reactance at audio frequencies
C High reactance at radio frequencies
D Low reactance at radio frequencies

The coil (inductor) when dealing with an offending radio signal: chokes-off radio frequency (high reactance), but passes audio frequencies (low reactance). Recall that the opposition of a coil to AC current flow (inductive reactance) grows as frequency increases.

B-5-10-8 (B) What property allows an RF bypass capacitor on an audio circuit to divert an offending radio signal?
A High reactance at audio frequencies
B Low reactance at radio frequencies
C High reactance at radio frequencies
D Low reactance at audio frequencies

The bypass capacitor must provide a low impedance path for an offending signal without affecting lower frequency signals: low reactance for radio frequency, high reactance for audio. Recall that the opposition of a capacitor to AC current flow (capacitive reactance) decreases as frequency goes up.

B-5-10-9 (C) What property allows an RF bypass capacitor to have little effect on an audio circuit?
A High reactance at high frequencies
B Low reactance at low frequencies
C High reactance at low frequencies
D Low reactance at high frequencies

The bypass capacitor must provide a low impedance path for an offending signal without affecting lower frequency signals: low reactance for radio frequency, high reactance for audio. Recall that the opposition of a capacitor to AC current flow (capacitive reactance) decreases as frequency goes up.

B-5-10-10 (C) What property allows an RF choke coil to have little effect on signals meant to flow through the coil?
A Low reactance at high frequencies
B High reactance at high frequencies
C Low reactance at low frequencies
D High reactance at low frequencies

The coil (inductor) when dealing with an offending radio signal: chokes-off radio frequency (high reactance), but passes audio frequencies (low reactance). Recall that the opposition of a coil to AC current flow (inductive reactance) grows as frequency increases.

B-5-10-11 (C) In general, the reactance of inductors increases with:
A decreasing applied voltage
B increasing applied voltage
C increasing AC frequency
D decreasing AC frequency

Reactance is opposition. XL = 2 PI f * L. Inductive reactance = two times PI (i.e., 3.14) times frequency in hertz times inductance in henrys. Reactance (opposition) is not influenced by the amplitude of the applied voltage. If frequency goes up, inductive reactance goes up. Intuitively, the higher the frequency (i.e., rate of change), the more significant become the counter-currents induced in adjacent turns.

B-5-11-1 (D) If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
A Direct current
B Latent current
C Stabilizing current
D Magnetizing current

Even if no current is drawn from the secondary of the transformer, the primary winding remains an inductor. It lets some AC current through despite its reactance. This minimal current is called “Magnetizing current”.

B-5-11-2 (B) A transformer operates a 6.3 volt 2 ampere light bulb from its secondary winding. The input power to the primary winding is approximately:
A 3 watts
B 13 watts
C 6 watts
D 8 watts

The Power Law: P = E I, power is voltage times current. 6.3 volts 2 amperes = 12.6 watts

B-5-11-3 (A) A transformer has a 240 volt primary that draws a current of 250 milliamperes from the mains supply. Assuming no losses and only one secondary, what current would be available from the 12 volt secondary?
A 5 amperes
B 215 amperes
C 25 amperes
D 50 amperes

As work is performed at a lower voltage on the secondary side, current on the secondary is larger. The turns ratio is ‘20 to 1’ ( 240 volts to 12 volts ), the current ratio follows the inverse of that ratio: 20 0.25 amperes = 5 amperes. Method B: Primary consumes 60 watts ( 240 volts 0.25 amperes ), secondary must draw that same power (discounting losses). What is the secondary current for 60 watts at 12 volts ? I = P / E (derived from P = E * I), I = 60 watts / 12 volts = 5 amperes.

B-5-11-4 (B) In a mains power transformer, the primary winding has 250 turns, and the secondary has 500. If the input voltage is 120 volts, the likely secondary voltage is:
A 26 V
B 240 V
C 480 V
D 610 V

A ‘step-up’ transformer, the secondary uses twice as many turns as the primary, voltage is doubled ( exactly per the turns ratio ).

B-5-11-5 (B) The strength of the magnetic field around a conductor in air is:
A inversely proportional to the voltage on the conductor
B directly proportional to the current in the conductor
C inversely proportional to the diameter of the conductor
D directly proportional to the diameter of the conductor

Current and magnetism are closely related: current in a conductor sets up a magnetic field, dropping a conductor through magnetic lines of force creates a current. Voltage which would only be of concern for an electrical field. Reference to the conductor’s diameter is a useless clue.

B-5-11-6 (A) Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs when:
A current is going through its greatest rate of change
B the current through the coil is of a DC nature
C current is going through its least rate of change
D the magnetic field around the coil is not changing

For induction to take place in a wire, a conductor must be subjected to a moving magnetic field (no movement, no induction). Either the conductor must move in the magnetic field OR the magnetic field must move if the conductor is immobile. If current changes drastically within a short period of time (‘rate of change’), the magnetic field around the conductor changes rapidly, induction is maximized.

B-5-11-7 (B) The voltage induced in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is at a maximum when the movement is:
A made in a clockwise direction
B perpendicular to the lines of force
C made in a counter clockwise direction
D parallel to the lines of force

For induction to be maximum, the conductor must “cut” through the lines of magnetic force. Dropping through perpendicularly (at 90 degrees) through the magnetic field maximizes induction.

B-5-11-8 (D) A 100% efficient transformer has a turns ratio of 1/5. If the secondary current is 50 milliamperes, the primary current is:
A 2 500 mA
B 0.01 A
C 0.25 mA
D 0.25 A

A turns ratio of ‘1 to 5’ indicates a ‘step-up’ transformer, primary current will be larger than the secondary current by the inverse of that ratio. In this example, primary current is 5 times 50 mA = 250 milliamperes = 0.25 amperes. Transformers do not “create” power out of nothing, the power ( E I ) flowing into the primary equals the power drawn by the secondary plus losses (which are ignored for the sake of simplicity). For power to remain “comparable” on both sides of the transformer, current goes up if voltage increases and vice-versa.

B-5-11-11 (C) The fact that energy transfer from primary to secondary windings in a power transformer is not perfect is indicated by:
A large secondary currents
B high primary voltages
C warm iron laminations
D electrostatic shielding

Heating of the core laminations is a symptom of one of the losses in a real-life transformer.

B-5-12-1 (D) Resonance is the condition that exists when:
A inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit
B the circuit contains no resistance
C resistance is equal to the reactance
D inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal

Resonance is the condition where Inductive Reactance (XL) is equal in value to Capacitive Reactance (XC). For a given Inductance (L, a coil or inductor) and Capacitance (C, a capacitor), resonance happens at one frequency: the resonant frequency. At resonance, the two reactances cancel each other, only resistance is left in the circuit.

B-5-12-2 (B) Parallel tuned circuits offer:
A an impedance equal to resistance of the circuit
B high impedance at resonance
C low impedance at resonance
D zero impedance at resonance

key words: PARALLEL, TUNED. Question refers to Resonance. The one frequency at which Inductive Reactance cancels Capacitive Reactance. In a PARALLEL circuit, Impedance (Z) at resonance is HIGH ( series circuit will be the opposite ). As a memory aid, try to visualize the PARALLEL circuit as a tub or tank, signals get trapped at resonance. Try to visualize the SERIES circuit as a slim tube, signals slip right through at resonance.

B-5-12-3 (B) Resonance is an electrical property used to describe:
A the results of tuning a varicap (varactor)
B the frequency characteristic of a coil and capacitor circuit
C an inductor
D a set of parallel inductors

Resonance is the condition where Inductive Reactance (XL) is equal in value to Capacitive Reactance (XC). For a given Inductance (L, a coil or inductor) and Capacitance (C, a capacitor), resonance happens at one frequency: the resonant frequency. At resonance, the two reactances cancel each other, only resistance is left in the circuit.

B-5-12-4 (A) A tuned circuit is formed from two basic components. These are:
A inductors and capacitors
B resistors and transistors
C directors and reflectors
D diodes and transistors

A ‘tuned’ circuit is a synonym for a ‘resonant’ circuit. Resonance is the condition where Inductive Reactance (XL) is equal in value to Capacitive Reactance (XC). Inductors and Capacitors alone determine the resonant frequency of a circuit.

B-5-12-5 (B) When a parallel coil-capacitor combination is supplied with AC of different frequencies, there will be one frequency where the impedance will be highest. This is the:
A reactive frequency
B resonant frequency
C impedance frequency
D inductive frequency

key words: COIL, CAPACITOR. A ‘tuned’ circuit. Question refers to Resonance. The one frequency at which Inductive Reactance cancels Capacitive Reactance. In a PARALLEL circuit, Impedance (Z) at resonance is HIGH ( series circuit will be the opposite ). As a memory aid, try to visualize the PARALLEL circuit as a tub or tank, signals get trapped at resonance. Try to visualize the SERIES circuit as a slim tube, signals slip right through at resonance.

B-5-12-6 (A) In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has a:
A high impedance
B low impedance
C low mutual inductance
D high mutual inductance

key words: PARALLEL, RESONANT. Question refers to Resonance. The one frequency at which Inductive Reactance cancels Capacitive Reactance. In a PARALLEL circuit, Impedance (Z) at resonance is HIGH ( series circuit will be the opposite ). As a memory aid, try to visualize the PARALLEL circuit as a tub or tank, signals get trapped at resonance. Try to visualize the SERIES circuit as a slim tube, signals slip right through at resonance.

B-5-12-7 (B) In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has:
A high mutual inductance
B low impedance
C high impedance
D low mutual inductance

key words: SERIES, RESONANT. Question refers to Resonance. The one frequency at which Inductive Reactance cancels Capacitive Reactance. In a SERIES circuit, Impedance (Z) at resonance is LOW ( parallel circuit will be the opposite ). If Impedance is low (little total opposition), current will be high. As a memory aid, try to visualize the SERIES circuit as a slim tube, signals slip right through at resonance. Try to visualize the PARALLEL circuit as a tub or tank, signals get trapped at resonance.

B-5-12-8 (B) A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are arranged to form a resonant circuit. The resonant frequency will remain the same if we:
A wind more turns on the coil
B add a resistor to the circuit
C increase the area of plates in the capacitor
D insert Mylar sheets between the plates of the capacitor

Resonance is affected exclusively by Inductance (L in henrys for inductors) and Capacitance ( C in farads for capacitors ). Capacitance is affected by the area of the plates and the choice of dielectric. Inductance is affected by the number of turns in a coil.

B-5-12-9 (A) Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to:
A select signal frequencies
B filter direct current
C increase power
D adjust voltage levels

Resonance is about choosing a frequency (or narrow range of frequencies) over others, either to eliminate it or favour it.

B-5-12-10 (B) Resonance is the condition that exists when:
A resistance is equal to the reactance
B inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite in sign
C inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit
D the circuit contains no resistance

Resonance is the condition where Inductive Reactance (XL) is equal in value to Capacitive Reactance (XC). For a given Inductance (L, a coil or inductor) and Capacitance (C, a capacitor), resonance happens at one frequency: the resonant frequency. At resonance, the two reactances cancel each other, only resistance is left in the circuit.

B-5-12-11 (C) When a series LCR circuit is tuned to the frequency of the source, the:
A line current leads the applied voltage
B impedance is maximum
C line current reaches maximum
D line current lags the applied voltage

key words: SERIES, TUNED. Question refers to Resonance. The one frequency at which Inductive Reactance cancels Capacitive Reactance. In a SERIES circuit, Impedance (Z) at resonance is LOW ( parallel circuit will be the opposite ). If Impedance is low (little total opposition), current will be high. As a memory aid, try to visualize the SERIES circuit as a slim tube, signals slip right through at resonance. Try to visualize the PARALLEL circuit as a tub or tank, signals get trapped at resonance.

B-6-6-4 (B) When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?
A When the load resistance is infinite
B When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source
C When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core transformers
D When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. For example, a transmitter designed to work into an impedance of 50 ohms, will delivered maximum power if the antenna system offers an impedance of 50 ohms.

B-6-6-5 (B) What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
A The source delivers minimum power to the load
B The source delivers maximum power to the load
C The electrical load is shorted
D No current can flow through the circuit

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. For example, a transmitter designed to work into an impedance of 50 ohms, will delivered maximum power if the antenna system offers an impedance of 50 ohms.

B-6-6-6 (A) Why is impedance matching important?
A So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
D To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. For example, a transmitter designed to work into an impedance of 50 ohms, will delivered maximum power if the antenna system offers an impedance of 50 ohms.

{L06a} Decibels.

(to be organized)

B-5-8-1 (B) A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
A 1 dB higher
B 3 dB higher
C 6 dB higher
D 12 dB higher

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-2 (B) How can you decrease your transmitter’s power by 3 dB?
A Divide the original power by 4
B Divide the original power by 2
C Divide the original power by 1.5
D Divide the original power by 3

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-3 (D) How can you increase your transmitter’s power by 6 dB?
A Multiply the original power by 3
B Multiply the original power by 2
C Multiply the original power by 1.5
D Multiply the original power by 4

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-4 (D) If a signal-strength report is “10 dB over S9”, what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
A S9 plus 3 dB
B S9 minus 10 dB
C S9 plus 5 dB
D S9

A reduction at the transmitting station from 1500 watts to 150 watts is a drop of -10 dB (one tenth). The received signal strength which read ‘10 dB OVER Nine S units’ will drop -10 dB to simply ‘Nine S units’.

B-5-8-5 (B) If a signal-strength report is “20 dB over S9”, what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
A S9
B S9 plus 10 dB
C S9 plus 5 dB
D S9 plus 3 dB

A reduction at the transmitting station from 1500 watts to 150 watts is a drop of -10 dB (one tenth). The received signal strength which reads ‘20 dB OVER Nine S units’ will drop -10 dB to simply ‘10 dB over Nine S units’.

B-5-8-6 (C) The unit “decibel” is used to indicate:
A certain radio waves
B a single side band signal
C a mathematical ratio
D an oscilloscope wave form

The DECIBEL: “A unit used in the COMPARISON of two power levels relating to electrical signals”. GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-7 (A) The power output from a transmitter increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. This is a dB increase of:
A 3
B 30
C 6
D 1

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-8 (A) The power of a transmitter is increased from 5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The power gain, expressed in dB, is:
A 10 dB
B 30 dB
C 40 dB
D 20 dB

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-9 (C) You add a 9 dB gain amplifier to your 2 watt handheld. What is the power output of the combination?
A 20 watts
B 18 watts
C 16 watts
D 11 watts

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-10 (C) The power of a transmitter is increased from 2 watts to 8 watts. This is a power gain of __ dB.
A 8 dB
B 9 dB
C 6 dB
D 3 dB

GAINS in power: +3 dB = twice, +6 dB = four times (2x2), +9 dB = eight times (2x2x2), +10 dB = ten times, +20 dB = one hundred times (10x10), +30 dB = one thousand times (10x10x10). LOSSES: -3 dB = half, -6 dB = one quarter (0.5 x 0.5), -9 dB = one eighth (0.5 x 0.5 x 0.5), -10 dB = one tenth, -20 dB = one hundredth (0.1 x 0.1), -30 dB = one thousandth (0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1).

B-5-8-11 (B) A local amateur reports your 100W 2M simplex VHF transmission as 30 dB over S9. To reduce your signal to S9, you would reduce your power to __ watts.
A 33.3 W
B 100 mW
C 1 W
D 10 W

To bring a received signal strength of ‘30 dB OVER Nine S units’ down to ‘Nine S units’ supposes a drop of -30 dB, i.e., one thousandth of the original power. In this example, 100 watts would need to be brought down to 0.1 watt.

{L06b} Transmission Lines.

(to be organized)

B-6-1-1 (C) What connects your transceiver to your antenna?
A A ground wire
B A dummy load
C A transmission line
D The power cord

A “transmission line” carries radio frequency signals from the station to the antenna and between the various pieces of equipment in the station.

B-6-1-2 (D) The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the:
A length of the line
B frequency at which the line is operated
C load placed on the line
D physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors

Characteristic Impedance is determined by the physical dimensions of the line. Length, frequency or load have nothing to do with it.

B-6-1-3 (B) The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. If 10 metres were cut off, the impedance would be:
A 13 ohms
B 52 ohms
C 26 ohms
D 39 ohms

This is a catch. Characteristic Impedance does NOT change with line length. Length, frequency or load have nothing to do with it.

B-6-1-4 (A) The characteristic impedance of a coaxial line:
A can be the same for different diameter line
B changes significantly with the frequency of the energy it carries
C is correct for only one size of line
D is greater for larger diameter line

The Characteristic Impedance of coaxial cable is determined by the ratio of the outer conductor to the inner conductor. Different diameters of lines can have the same Characteristic Impedance as long as the RATIO is preserved.

B-6-1-5 (C) What commonly available antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
A 600 ohm open wire line
B 75 ohm twin-lead
C Coaxial cable
D 300 ohm twin-lead

Because the outer conductor of a coaxial cable is operated at ground potential, it can be buried. Parallel lines operate differently with both conductors at some voltage above ground.

B-6-1-6 (C) The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:
A the dynamic impedance of the line at the operating frequency
B the ratio of the power supplied to the line to the power delivered to the load
C equal to the pure resistance which, if connected to the end of the line, will absorb all the power arriving along it
D the impedance of a section of the line one wavelength long

If a resistor of the same value as the Characteristic Impedance of a given line is placed at the end of that line, no energy is reflected. 100% of the incoming energy is dissipated in the terminating load.

B-6-1-7 (C) A transmission line differs from an ordinary circuit or network in communications or signalling devices in one very important way. That important aspect is:
A inductive reactance
B resistance
C propagation delay
D capacitive reactance

Radio signals propagate (travel) slower in a transmission line than they do in space. ‘Propagation Delay’ is specific to transmission lines. Resistance and reactance can be found in many other components or circuits.

B-6-1-8 (C) The characteristic impedance of a parallel wire transmission line does not depend on the:
A centre to centre distance between conductors
B dielectric
C velocity of energy on the line
D radius of the conductors

Key words: DOES NOT. Physical dimensions (radius and centre to centre distance) and dielectric influence Characteristic Impedance. The speed at which waves travel on the line (velocity) is another characteristic altogether.

B-6-1-9 (B) If the impedance terminating a transmission line differs significantly from the characteristic impedance of the line, what will be observed at the input of the line?
A An impedance nearly equal to the characteristic impedance
B Some value of impedance influenced by line length
C An infinite impedance
D A negative impedance

A transmission line offers an input impedance similar to the terminating impedance when the impedance placed at the end of the line matches the characteristic impedance of the line: in short, a 50 ohms impedance at the end of a line with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms will present a 50 ohms impedance to the transmitter, regardless of line length. If the terminating impedance is mismatched, the impedance seen at the input of the line will depend on terminating impedance AND line length: the line acts as an impedance transformer.

B-6-1-10 (C) What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna transmission line?
A The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
B The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
C The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
D The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line

Physical dimensions (radius and centre to centre distance) influence Characteristic Impedance. It is independent of line length or operating frequency.

B-6-1-11 (D) What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a coaxial antenna transmission line?
A The diameter of the shield and the length of the line
B The diameter of the shield and the frequency of the signal
C The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
D The ratio of the diameter of the inner conductor to the diameter of the outer shield

The Characteristic Impedance of coaxial cable is determined by the ratio of the outer conductor to the inner conductor. It is independent of line length or operating frequency.

B-6-2-1 (B) What is a coaxial cable?
A Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral
B A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield
C Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon
D Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods

Coaxial: two concentric conductors, an inner conductor, a dielectric (insulator) and an outer conductor (braided or solid). ‘Twin lead’ (a type of parallel line) looks like a ribbon. ‘Open wire line’ or ‘ladder line’ (a type of parallel line) uses insulating rods. [ ‘Twisted pair’ is very rarely used in radio work. ]

B-6-2-2 (D) What is parallel-conductor transmission line?
A Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral
B A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield
C A metal pipe which is as wide or slightly wider than a wavelength of the signal it carries
D Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating material

“Two wires held apart by insulating rods (spacers or ‘spreaders’)” is also known as ‘open wire line’ or ‘ladder line’.

B-6-2-3 (B) What kind of antenna transmission line is made of two conductors held apart by insulated rods?
A Twisted pair
B Open wire line
C Coaxial cable
D Twin lead in a plastic ribbon

“Two wires held apart by insulating rods (spacers or ‘spreaders’)” is also known as ‘open wire line’ or ‘ladder line’.

B-6-2-4 (B) What does the term “balun” mean?
A Balanced antenna network
B Balanced to unbalanced
C Balanced unloader
D Balanced unmodulator

“Balun” is the contraction of “BALanced to UNbalanced”. Dipole antennas and parallel lines operate in a BALanced mode (two conductors float above ground potential). A quarter-wave antenna, a ground-plane antenna and coaxial cable operate in an UNbalanced mode (with one side grounded). A BALUN interfaces balanced antenna to unbalanced transmission line OR balanced line to unbalanced line. A BALUN can also include impedance transformation.

B-6-2-5 (C) Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
A Between the antenna and the ground
B Between the coaxial cable and the ground
C Between the coaxial cable and the antenna
D Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable

“Balun” is the contraction of “BALanced to UNbalanced”. Dipole antennas and parallel lines operate in a BALanced mode (two conductors float above ground potential. A quarter-wave antenna, a ground-plane antenna and coaxial cable operate in an UNbalanced mode (with one side grounded). A BALUN interfaces balanced antenna to unbalanced transmission line OR balanced line to unbalanced line. A BALUN can also include impedance transformation.

B-6-2-6 (B) What is an unbalanced line?
A Transmission line with both conductors connected to each other
B Transmission line with one conductor connected to ground
C Transmission line with neither conductor connected to ground
D Transmission line with both conductors connected to ground

key word: UNBALANCED. An ‘UNbalanced’ transmission line functions with one conductor connected to ground (like coaxial cable or ‘coax’ for short). A ‘balanced’ transmission line operates with both conductors floating above ground potential (like all types of parallel lines: twin-lead, open-wire line).

B-6-2-7 (D) What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line?
A A triaxial transformer
B A wave trap
C A loading coil
D A balun

“Balun” is the contraction of “BALanced to UNbalanced”. Dipole antennas and parallel lines operate in a BALanced mode (two conductors float above ground potential. A quarter-wave antenna, a ground-plane antenna and coaxial cable operate in an UNbalanced mode (with one side grounded). A BALUN interfaces balanced antenna to unbalanced transmission line OR balanced line to unbalanced line. A BALUN can also include impedance transformation.

B-6-2-8 (D) A flexible coaxial line contains:
A four or more conductors running parallel
B only one conductor
C two parallel conductors separated by spacers
D braided shield conductor and insulation around a central conductor

Coaxial: two concentric conductors, an inner conductor, a dielectric (insulator) and an outer conductor (braided or solid). “Two parallel conductors separated by spacers” are also known as ‘open wire line’ or ‘ladder line’.

B-6-2-9 (C) A balanced transmission line:
A carries RF current on one wire only
B is made of one conductor only
C is made of two parallel wires
D has one conductor inside the other

key word: BALANCED. A ‘balanced’ transmission line operates with both conductors floating above ground potential (like all types of parallel lines: twin-lead, open-wire line). An ‘UNbalanced’ transmission line functions with one conductor connected to ground (like coaxial cable or ‘coax’ for short).

B-6-2-10 (D) A 75 ohm transmission line could be matched to the 300 ohm feed point of an antenna:
A with an extra 250 ohm resistor
B by using a 4 to 1 trigatron
C by inserting a diode in one leg of the antenna
D by using a 4 to 1 impedance transformer

“Balun” is the contraction of “BALanced to UNbalanced”. Dipole antennas and parallel lines operate in a BALanced mode (two conductors float above ground potential. A quarter-wave antenna, a ground-plane antenna and coaxial cable operate in an UNbalanced mode (with one side grounded). A BALUN interfaces balanced antenna to unbalanced transmission line OR balanced line to unbalanced line. A BALUN can also include impedance transformation. In this example, a ‘4 to 1’ balun.

B-6-2-11 (C) What kind of antenna transmission line can be constructed using two conductors which are maintained a uniform distance apart using insulated spreaders?
A 75 ohm twin-lead
B 300 ohm twin-lead
C 600 ohm open wire line
D Coaxial cable

“Two wires held apart by insulating rods (spacers or ‘spreaders’)” is also known as ‘open wire line’ or ‘ladder line’. ‘Twin-lead’ is two conductors held apart in a plastic ribbon. Coaxial cable is two concentric conductors, an inner conductor, a dielectric (insulator) and an outer conductor (braided or solid).

B-6-3-1 (A) Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna transmission line?
A It is weatherproof, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas
B It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas
C It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas
D You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas

Parallel lines generally have Characteristic Impedances in the range of 300 to 600 ohms. Common coaxial cable have Characteristic Impedances of 50 or 75 ohms. Such an impedance is a direct match to transmitters and common antennas.

B-6-3-2 (A) What is the best antenna transmission line to use, if it must be put near grounded metal objects?
A Coaxial cable
B Ladder-line
C Twisted pair
D Twin lead

Coaxial cable, with its shielded and grounded outer conductor, is not affected by nearby metallic objects.

B-6-3-3 (A) What are some reasons not to use parallel-conductor transmission line?
A It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and you should use a balun and may have to use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver
B You must use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver, and it does not work very well with a high SWR
C It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and it cannot operate under high power
D It is difficult to make at home, and it does not work very well with a high SWR

key word: NOT. The high Characteristic Impedances and greater separation of the conductors in parallel lines DO permit high power and high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) BUT nearby metallic objects can affect them and impedance matching is most often necessary at the transmitter end. Their high Characteristic Impedance permits carrying power with less current (P = R * I squared), less current implies less losses due to resistance.

B-6-3-4 (C) What common connector type usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver?
A A banana plug connector
B A binding post connector
C A PL-259 connector
D An F-type cable connector

‘RG-213’ is the catalogue designation of common 10 mm (0.405 in.) coaxial cable. ‘PL-259’ is the catalogue designation of the male connector which matches the output connector found on MF/HF (Medium Frequency/High Frequency) transceivers. The ‘SMA’ connector is found on modern compact handheld transceivers. The ‘Type-N’ connector is the connector of choice above 300 MHz. The ‘BNC’ connector is found on larger size handheld transceivers.

B-6-3-5 (B) What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna?
A A binding post connector
B An SMA connector
C A PL-259 connector
D An F-type cable connector

The ‘SMA’ connector is found on modern compact handheld transceivers. The ‘BNC’ connector is found on older and larger handheld transceivers. ‘PL-259’ is the catalogue designation of the male connector which matches the output connector found on MF/HF (Medium Frequency/High Frequency) transceivers. The PL-259 connector fits on 10 mm (0.405 in.) coaxial cable such as RG-213. The ‘Type-N’ connector is the connector of choice above 300 MHz.

B-6-3-6 (A) Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF?
A A type-N connector
B An F-type cable connector
C A BNC connector
D A PL-259 connector

The ‘Type-N’ connector is the connector of choice above 300 MHz. The ‘BNC’ connector is found on larger size handheld transceivers. ‘PL-259’ is the catalogue designation of the male connector which matches the output connector found on MF/HF (Medium Frequency/High Frequency) transceivers. The ‘SMA’ connector is found on modern compact handheld transceivers.

B-6-3-7 (C) If you install a 6 metre Yagi on a tower 60 metres (200 ft) from your transmitter, which of the following transmission lines provides the least loss?
A RG-59
B RG-58
C RG-213
D RG-174

‘RG-213’ is the coaxial with the largest diameter (10 mm or 0.405 in.) in this group. It has the lowest loss per 30 m length.

B-6-3-8 (B) Why should you regularly clean and tighten all antenna connectors?
A To increase their capacitance
B To help keep their contact resistance at a minimum
C To keep them looking nice
D To keep them from getting stuck in place

Poor connections can also lead to intermittent electrical contact (evidenced by an erratic or ‘jumpy’ Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) reading at the station).

B-6-3-9 (B) What commonly available antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
A 300 ohm twin-lead
B Coaxial cable
C 75 ohm twin-lead
D 600 ohm open wire line

Coaxial cable, with its shielded and grounded outer conductor, is not affected by conductive soil. It is also not affected by nearby metallic objects.

B-6-3-10 (C) When antenna transmission lines must be placed near grounded metal objects, which of the following transmission lines should be used?
A 600 ohm open wire line
B 75 ohm twin-lead
C Coaxial cable
D 300 ohm twin-lead

Coaxial cable, with its grounded outer conductor, is not affected by nearby metallic objects.

B-6-3-11 (B) TV twin-lead transmission line can be used for a transmission line in an amateur station. The impedance of this line is approximately:
A 70 ohms
B 300 ohms
C 600 ohms
D 50 ohms

50 ohms is the common Characteristic Impedance of coaxial cable. 600 ohms is the common Characteristic Impedance of ‘open-wire line’ (a.k.a. ladder line). 300 ohms is the Characteristic Impedance of twin-lead transmission line used with yesteryear outside television antennas.

B-6-4-1 (A) Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF antenna system?
A To keep RF loss low
B To keep television interference high
C To keep the power going to your antenna system from getting too high
D To keep the standing wave ratio of your antenna system high

Losses in transmission lines increase with length and operating frequencies. At Ultra High Frequencies (UHF, 300 MHz to 3000 MHz), keeping losses low is paramount.

B-6-4-2 (D) What are some reasons to use parallel-conductor transmission line?
A It has low impedance, and will operate with a high SWR
B It will operate with a high SWR, and it works well when tied down to metal objects
C It has a low impedance, and has less loss than coaxial cable
D It will operate with a high SWR, and has less loss than coaxial cable

The high Characteristic Impedances and greater separation of the conductors in parallel lines DO permit high power and high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) BUT nearby metallic objects can affect them and impedance matching is most often necessary at the transmitter end. Their high Characteristic Impedance permits carrying power with less current (P = R * I squared), less current implies less losses due to resistance.

B-6-4-3 (C) If your transmitter and antenna are 15 metres (50 ft) apart, but are connected by 60 metres (200 ft) of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce transmission line loss?
A Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as possible
B Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an even number of wavelengths long
C Shorten the excess cable
D Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an odd number of wavelengths long

key words: 60 METRES of RG-58. Forty-five extra metres (150 ft.) of unnecessary RG-58 (diameter = 5 mm or 0.195 in.) introduce 4 dB of loss at 30 MHz, that’s the problem here. [ References to multiples of the wavelength only tap into urban legends. ]

B-6-4-4 (B) As the length of a transmission line is changed, what happens to signal loss?
A Signal loss is the same for any length of transmission line
B Signal loss increases as length increases
C Signal loss decreases as length increases
D Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal’s wavelength

Signal loss in a given transmission line AUGMENT with increased length or increased operating frequency. For example, 30 m of RG-58 introduce a loss of -3 dB at 50 MHz. Doubling the length, double the loss: 60 m of RG-58 lose -6 dB at 50 MHz. The original 30 m of RG-58 wastes -10 dB at 450 MHz.

B-6-4-5 (C) As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a transmission line?
A Signal loss is the least when the signal’s wavelength is the same as the transmission line’s length
B Signal loss is the same for any frequency
C Signal loss increases with increasing frequency
D Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency

Signal loss in a given transmission line AUGMENT with increased length or increased operating frequency. For example, 30 m of RG-58 introduce a loss of -3 dB at 50 MHz. Doubling the length, double the loss: 60 m of RG-58 lose -6 dB at 50 MHz. The original 30 m of RG-58 wastes -10 dB at 450 MHz.

B-6-4-6 (D) Losses occurring on a transmission line between transmitter and antenna results in:
A an SWR reading of 1:1
B reflections occurring in the line
C the wire radiating RF energy
D less RF power being radiated

Losses in the line are merely transmit energy that does not get to the antenna to be radiated OR received signal which does not reach the receiver to be detected. The SWR reading is primarily dependent on the adequacy of the match between the load placed at the end of the line and the Characteristic Impedance of the line. Reflections, measured by SWR, are caused by an improper match at the end of the line.

B-6-4-7 (A) The lowest loss transmission line on HF is:
A open wire line
B 75 ohm twin-lead
C coaxial cable
D 300 ohm twin-lead

300 ohms is the Characteristic Impedance of TV twin-lead transmission line. The high Characteristic Impedances and greater separation of the conductors in parallel lines DO permit high power and high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) BUT nearby metallic objects can affect them and impedance matching is most often necessary at the transmitter end. Their high Characteristic Impedance permits carrying power with less current (P = R * I squared), less current implies less losses due to resistance.

B-6-4-8 (B) In what values are RF transmission line losses expressed?
A Ohms per metre
B dB per unit length
C Ohms per MHz
D dB per MHz

“Decibels per unit length”. In North America, typically ‘dB per 100 ft.’ or ‘dB per 30 m’ at a given frequency. Loss rises proportionally with length. Loss goes up as frequency goes up.

B-6-4-9 (C) If the length of coaxial transmission line is increased from 20 metres (66 ft) to 40 metres (132 ft), how would this affect the line loss?
A It would be increased by 10%
B It would be reduced to 50%
C It would be increased by 100%
D It would be reduced by 10%

If line length is doubled, the incurred signal loss is doubled. Loss for transmission lines is specified as “decibels per 100 feet (30 m)” at a certain frequency. Signal loss in a given transmission line AUGMENT with increased length or increased operating frequency. For example, 30 m of RG-58 introduce a loss of -3 dB at 50 MHz. Doubling the length, double the loss: 60 m of RG-58 lose -6 dB at 50 MHz. The original 30 m of RG-58 wastes -10 dB at 450 MHz.

B-6-4-10 (D) If the frequency is increased, how would this affect the loss on a transmission line?
A It is independent of frequency
B It depends on the line length
C It would decrease
D It would increase

The higher the frequency, the higher the loss. Larger diameter coaxial cables are recommended at VHF (Very High Frequency) and UHF (Ultra High Frequency) to minimize losses. Signal loss in a given transmission line AUGMENT with increased length or increased operating frequency. For example, 30 m of RG-58 introduce a loss of -3 dB at 50 MHz. Doubling the length, double the loss: 60 m of RG-58 lose -6 dB at 50 MHz. The original 30 m of RG-58 wastes -10 dB at 450 MHz.

B-6-5-1 (A) What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?
A The best impedance match has been attained
B An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected
C No power is going to the antenna
D The SWR meter is broken

SWR is a measure of the impedance match in the antenna system. A Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) of ‘1 to 1’ is an ideal condition indicating no reflected energy. The impedance of the load at the end of the transmission line matches the Characteristic Impedance of the line. Impedance Match has been achieved. A Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) of ‘1.5 to 1’ would indicate a fairly good match while a very high SWR would indicate a short-circuit or an open-circuit somewhere along the transmission line.

B-6-5-2 (B) What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?
A An antenna gain of 1.5
B A fairly good impedance match
C An impedance match which is too low
D A serious impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna system

SWR is a measure of the impedance match in the antenna system. A Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) of ‘1.5 to 1’ is a totally acceptable condition indicating little reflected energy. A ‘1 to 1’ ratio would indicate a perfect match while a very high SWR would indicate a short-circuit or an open-circuit somewhere along the transmission line.

B-6-5-3 (B) What kind of SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between parts of an antenna system?
A A very low reading
B A jumpy reading
C A negative reading
D No reading at all

SWR is a measure of the impedance match in the antenna system. A ‘jumpy’ (erratic) reading resulting from the sometimes on, sometimes off electrical contact would indicate a loose connection in the antenna system.

B-6-5-4 (A) What does a very high SWR reading mean?
A The antenna is the wrong length for the operating frequency, or the transmission line may be open or short circuited
B The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing that it is about to go bad
C There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor radio conditions
D The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which means very good radio condition

SWR is a measure of the impedance match in the antenna system. A very high SWR, indicating that most if not all energy sent up the line is reflected back indicates that the antenna is cut for a totally different frequency OR that a short-circuit or open-circuit exists somewhere along the line.

B-6-5-5 (D) What does standing-wave ratio mean?
A The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a transmission line
B The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a transmission line
C The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a transmission line
D The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a transmission line

‘Standing Waves’ result from the interaction of the forward power sent from the transmitter towards the antenna and the reverse power reflected back by an improper impedance match. The interaction produces a repeating pattern of voltage peaks and troughs along the line. SWR is also known as ‘Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR)’: it is a measure of the peak voltage to the minimum voltage on the standing wave.

B-6-5-6 (D) If your antenna transmission line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean?
A You should transmit using less power
B The conductors in the transmission line are not insulated very well
C The transmission line is too long
D The SWR may be too high, or the transmission line loss may be high

Line losses, possibly compounded by high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR), waste energy as heat.

B-6-5-7 (B) If the characteristic impedance of the transmission line does not match the antenna input impedance then:
A the antenna will not radiate any signal
B standing waves are produced in the transmission line
C heat is produced at the junction
D the SWR reading falls to 1:1

‘Standing Waves’ result from the interaction of the forward power sent from the transmitter towards the antenna and the reverse power reflected back by an improper impedance match. The interaction produces a repeating pattern of voltage peaks and troughs along the line. SWR is also known as ‘Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR)’: it is a measure of the peak voltage to the minimum voltage on the standing wave.

B-6-5-8 (B) The result of the presence of standing waves on a transmission line is:
A lack of radiation from the transmission line
B reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna
C perfect impedance match between transmitter and transmission line
D maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter

High SWR add to line losses and lead to energy wasted as heat.

B-6-5-9 (A) An SWR meter measures the degree of match between transmission line and antenna by:
A comparing forward and reflected voltage
B measuring radiated RF energy
C measuring the conductor temperature
D inserting a diode in the transmission line

‘Standing Waves’ result from the interaction of the forward power sent from the transmitter towards the antenna and the reverse power reflected back by an improper impedance match. The interaction produces a repeating pattern of voltage peaks and troughs along the line. SWR is also known as ‘Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR)’: it is a measure of the peak voltage to the minimum voltage on the standing wave.

B-6-5-10 (D) A resonant antenna having a feed point impedance of 200 ohms is connected to a transmission line which has an impedance of 50 ohms. What will the standing wave ratio of this system be?
A 6:1
B 3:1
C 5:1
D 4:1

key word: RESONANT. A resonant antenna (reactances cancel each other at resonance) does not present any reactance (X) but only a ‘radiation resistance’. In such a situation, SWR can be computed as the ratio of the impedances. In this example, 200 / 50 yields a ratio of ‘4 to 1’. SWR is normally a ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on the standing wave.

B-6-5-11 (B) The type of transmission line best suited to operating at a high standing wave ratio is:
A 300 ohm twin-lead
B 600 ohm open wire line
C 75 ohm twin-lead
D coaxial line

The high Characteristic Impedances and greater separation of the conductors in parallel lines DO permit high power and high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) BUT nearby metallic objects can affect them and impedance matching is most often necessary at the transmitter end. Their high Characteristic Impedance permits carrying power with less current (P = R * I squared), less current implies less losses due to resistance.

B-6-6-3 (B) What would you use to connect a coaxial cable of 50 ohms impedance to an antenna of 17 ohms impedance?
A A terminating resistor
B An impedance-matching device
C An SWR meter
D A low pass filter

The impedance mismatch could be corrected by an ‘impedance-matching device’.

B-6-6-7 (A) To obtain efficient power transmission from a transmitter to an antenna requires:
A matching of impedances
B high load impedance
C low load resistance
D inductive impedance

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. For example, A transmitter designed to work into an impedance of 50 ohms, will delivered maximum power if the antenna system offers an impedance of 50 ohms.

B-6-6-8 (A) To obtain efficient transfer of power from a transmitter to an antenna, it is important that there is a:
A matching of impedance
B high load impedance
C proper method of balance
D low load resistance

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. For example, A transmitter designed to work into an impedance of 50 ohms, will delivered maximum power if the antenna system offers an impedance of 50 ohms.

B-6-6-9 (D) If an antenna is correctly matched to a transmitter, the length of transmission line:
A must be a full wavelength long
B must be an odd number of quarter-wave
C must be an even number of half-waves
D will have no effect on the matching

IF a mismatch is present at the end of the transmission lines, certain lengths may introduce an ‘impedance transformation’ effect. With a correctly matched antenna, line length is immaterial except for line losses if the line is unnecessarily long. [ References to multiples of the wavelength only tap into urban legends. ]

B-6-6-10 (D) The reason that an RF transmission line should be matched at the transmitter end is to:
A ensure that the radiated signal has the intended polarization
B prevent frequency drift
C overcome fading of the transmitted signal
D transfer the maximum amount of power to the antenna

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. For example, A transmitter designed to work into an impedance of 50 ohms, will delivered maximum power if the antenna system offers an impedance of 50 ohms.

B-6-6-11 (A) If the centre impedance of a folded dipole is approximately 300 ohms, and you are using RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial lines, what is the ratio required to have the line and the antenna matched?
A 6:1
B 2:1
C 4:1
D 10:1

Impedance transformation of 300 to 50 ohms is required. 300 / 50 = ‘6 to 1’.

{L07} Active Devices: Diodes, Transistors and Tubes.

(to be organized)

B-4-1-1 (B) A circuit designed to increase the level of its input signal is called:
A a receiver
B an amplifier
C a modulator
D an oscillator

key word: INCREASE. An amplifier reproduces its input signal into a larger output signal ( more voltage, more current, more power).

B-4-1-2 (D) If an amplifier becomes non-linear, the output signal would:
A be saturated
B cause oscillations
C overload the power supply
D become distorted

If an amplifier is ‘linear’, amplification, as a ratio of output versus input, will be constant regardless of frequency or amplitude of the input signal. Linearity is synonym with ‘absence of distortion’. ‘Non-linear’ implies distortion.

B-4-1-3 (A) To increase the level of very weak radio signals from an antenna, you would use:
A an RF amplifier
B an RF oscillator
C an audio oscillator
D an audio amplifier

key words: INCREASE WEAK RADIO signals. A radio frequency (RF) amplifier must be used.

B-4-1-4 (C) To increase the level of very weak signals from a microphone you would use:
A an RF amplifier
B an audio oscillator
C an audio amplifier
D an RF oscillator

key words: INCREASE WEAK microphone signal. An ‘audio amplifier’. Frequently called a ‘speech amplifier’ or ‘microphone amplifier’ for this particular application.

B-4-1-5 (C) The range of frequencies to be amplified by a speech amplifier is typically:
A 300 to 1000 Hz
B 40 to 40 000 Hz
C 300 to 3000 Hz
D 3 to 300 Hz

Frequencies audible to humans range from 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz. Speech frequencies important for intelligibility in communications range from 300 Hz to 3000 Hz.

B-4-1-6 (D) Which of the following is not amplified by an amplifier?
A Current
B Power
C Voltage
D Resistance

key word: NOT. Amplifiers work on voltage, current and power.

B-4-1-7 (B) The increase in signal level by an amplifier is called:
A modulation
B gain
C attenuation
D amplitude

Gain (synonymous with amplification) is an increase in signal voltage/current/power. ‘Attenuation’ is a loss (opposite to gain). ‘Amplitude’ is the instantaneous value of a signal. ‘Modulation’ is the impression of a message onto another signal.

B-4-1-8 (C) A device with gain has the property of:
A oscillation
B modulation
C amplification
D attenuation

Gain and Amplification are synonymous. ‘Attenuation’ is a loss (opposite to gain). ‘Oscillation’ is the production of an Alternating Current (AC) signal. ‘Modulation’ is the impression of a message onto another signal.

B-4-1-9 (D) A device labelled “Gain = 10 dB” is likely to be an:
A attenuator
B oscillator
C audio fader
D amplifier

Gain and Amplification are synonymous. ‘Attenuation’ is a loss (opposite to gain). ‘Oscillation’ is the production of an Alternating Current (AC) signal. ‘Modulation’ is the impression of a message onto another signal.

B-4-1-10 (B) Amplifiers can amplify:
A voltage, current, or inductance
B voltage, current, or power
C current, power, or inductance
D voltage, power, or inductance

Recall that Inductance, a property of coils, is influenced by “The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil”.

B-4-1-11 (B) Which of the following is not a property of an amplifier?
A Distortion
B Loss
C Gain
D Linearity

key word: NOT. Gain and Amplification are synonymous. Linearity (or lack of distortion) is a specification of amplifiers. Loss has nothing to do with amplifiers.

B-4-2-1 (C) Zener diodes are used as:
A RF detectors
B AF detectors
C voltage regulators
D current regulators

ZENER diodes maintain a constant voltage across their terminals. Hence, they are used for voltage regulation.

B-4-2-2 (B) One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as:
A biasing
B demodulation
C regeneration
D ionization

Detection = DEmodulation = Recovery of the message carried on a radio signal.

B-4-2-3 (C) The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to:
A to boost the power supply voltage
B provide a path through which current can flow
C regulate or maintain a constant voltage
D provide a voltage phase shift

ZENER diodes maintain a constant voltage across their terminals. Hence, they are used for voltage regulation.

B-4-2-4 (D) The action of changing alternating current to direct current is called:
A amplification
B transformation
C modulation
D rectification

Changing AC to DC is called ‘Rectification’. AC is turned into ‘pulsating DC’ (it flows in one direction only) after going through a diode. In Power Supply circuits, diodes are called ‘Rectifiers’. Diodes have two electrodes: Cathode and Anode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode.

B-4-2-5 (B) The electrodes of a semiconductor diode are known as:
A cathode and drain
B anode and cathode
C gate and source
D collector and base

A DIODE, vacuum tube or semiconductor, has two electrodes: Anode and Cathode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode. Cathode/Grid/Anode(plate) are electrodes in a vacuum triode. Source/Gate/Drain are electrodes in a Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel). Emitter/Base/Collector are electrodes in a Bipolar Transistor ( type PNP or NPN ).

B-4-2-6 (D) If alternating current is applied to the anode of a diode, what would you expect to see at the cathode?
A No signal
B Steady direct current
C Pulsating alternating current
D Pulsating direct current

Changing AC to DC is called ‘Rectification’. AC is turned into ‘pulsating DC’ (it flows in one direction only) after going through a diode. In Power Supply circuits, diodes are called ‘Rectifiers’. Diodes have two electrodes: Cathode and Anode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode.

B-4-2-7 (B) In a semiconductor diode, electrons flow from:
A grid to anode
B cathode to anode
C anode to cathode
D cathode to grid

A DIODE, vacuum tube or semiconductor, has two electrodes: Anode and Cathode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode. Cathode/Grid/Anode(plate) are electrodes in a vacuum triode. Source/Gate/Drain are electrodes in a Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel). Emitter/Base/Collector are electrodes in a Bipolar Transistor ( type PNP or NPN ).

B-4-2-8 (B) What semiconductor device glows different colours, depending upon its chemical composition?
A A vacuum diode
B A light-emitting diode
C A fluorescent bulb
D A neon bulb

key word: SEMI-CONDUCTOR. “LED”, a Light-Emitting Diode.

B-4-2-9 (A) Voltage regulation is the principal application of the:
A Zener diode
B junction diode
C light-emitting diode
D vacuum diode

ZENER diodes maintain a constant voltage across their terminals. Hence, they are used for voltage regulation.

B-4-2-10 (C) In order for a diode to conduct, it must be:
A enhanced
B reverse-biased
C forward-biased
D close coupled

A DIODE, vacuum tube or semiconductor, has two electrodes: Anode and Cathode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode. Cathode/Grid/Anode(plate) are electrodes in a vacuum triode. Source/Gate/Drain are electrodes in a Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel). Emitter/Base/Collector are electrodes in a Bipolar Transistor ( type PNP or NPN ).

B-4-3-1 (B) Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?
A A multiple-cell battery
B A PNP transistor
C A variable resistor
D An electrolytic capacitor

key words: AMPLIFY, LOW VOLTAGE. A transistor amplifies signals and can work at a low voltage. Bipolar Transistors ( type PNP or NPN ) as well as Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel) can amplify signals.

B-4-3-2 (A) The basic semiconductor amplifying device is the:
A transistor
B tube
C P-N junction
D diode

key words: SEMICONDUCTOR, AMPLIFY. A transistor amplifies signals. Bipolar Transistors ( type PNP or NPN ) as well as Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel) can amplify signals. A ‘single P-N junction’ is a diode. Diodes have two main uses: ‘Rectification’ and ‘Detection’.

B-4-3-3 (D) The three leads from a PNP transistor are named:
A drain, base and source
B collector, source and drain
C gate, source and drain
D collector, emitter and base

Emitter/Base/Collector are electrodes in a Bipolar Transistor ( type PNP or NPN ). Source/Gate/Drain are electrodes in a Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel). Cathode/Grid/Anode(plate) are electrodes in a vacuum triode.

B-4-3-4 (D) If a low level signal is placed at the input to a transistor, a higher level of signal is produced at the output lead. This effect is known as:
A detection
B modulation
C rectification
D amplification

Detection = DEmodulation = Recovery of the message carried on a radio signal. ‘Modulation’ is the impression of a message onto another signal. ‘Rectification’ turns AC into ‘pulsating DC’ (it flows in one direction only) after going through a diode.

B-4-3-5 (C) Bipolar transistors usually have:
A 2 leads
B 4 leads
C 3 leads
D 1 leads

Emitter/Base/Collector are electrodes in a Bipolar Transistor ( type PNP or NPN ). Source/Gate/Drain are electrodes in a Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel). Cathode/Grid/Anode(plate) are electrodes in a vacuum triode.

B-4-3-6 (C) A semiconductor is described as a “general purpose audio NPN device”. This would be:
A a triode
B an audio detector
C a bipolar transistor
D a silicon diode

key word: NPN. The only choice in the group comprising a sandwich of N-semiconductor and P-semiconductor is the ‘Bipolar Transistor’.

B-4-3-7 (D) The two basic types of bipolar transistors are:
A diode and triode types
B varicap and Zener types
C P and N channel types
D NPN and PNP types

key word: BIPOLAR TRANSISTOR. It is constructed with a sandwich of N-semiconductor and P-semiconductor: NPN or PNP type.

B-4-3-8 (C) A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
A saturation
B cut-off
C excessive heat
D excessive light

Extreme operating temperatures can rapidly destroy transistors.

B-4-3-9 (A) In a bipolar transistor, the _ compares closest to the control grid of a triode vacuum tube.
A base
B emitter
C source
D collector

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-3-10 (D) In a bipolar transistor, the _ compares closest to the plate of a triode vacuum tube.
A gate
B emitter
C base
D collector

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-3-11 (D) In a bipolar transistor, the _ compares closest to the cathode of a triode vacuum tube.
A collector
B base
C drain
D emitter

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-1 (D) The two basic types of field effect transistors (FET) are:
A NPN and PNP
B germanium and silicon
C inductive and capacitive
D N and P channel

In a field effect transistor, Source and Drain are the two extremities of a ‘channel’ made of a single semi-conductor type. NPN and PNP are the two types of BIPOLAR Transistors.

B-4-4-2 (A) A semiconductor having its leads labelled gate, drain, and source is best described as a:
A field-effect transistor
B gated transistor
C bipolar transistor
D silicon diode

Source/Gate/Drain are electrodes in a Field Effect Transistor (FET, N-Channel or P-Channel). Emitter/Base/Collector are electrodes in a Bipolar Transistor ( type PNP or NPN ). Cathode/Grid/Anode(plate) are electrodes in a vacuum triode.

B-4-4-3 (B) In a field effect transistor, the _ is the terminal that controls the conductance of the channel.
A collector
B gate
C drain
D source

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-4 (A) In a field effect transistor, the _ is the terminal where the charge carriers enter the channel.
A source
B gate
C drain
D emitter

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-5 (C) In a field effect transistor, the _ is the terminal where the charge carriers leave the channel.
A source
B gate
C drain
D collector

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-6 (C) Which semiconductor device has characteristics most similar to a triode vacuum tube?
A Zener diode
B Bipolar transistor
C Field effect transistor
D Junction diode

The triode and the FET both rely on a reverse voltage on their control electrodes to affect the current through the device.

B-4-4-7 (D) The control element in the field effect transistor is the:
A source
B drain
C base
D gate

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-8 (C) If you wish to reduce the current flowing in a field effect transistor, you could:
A increase the forward bias voltage
B increase the forward bias gain
C increase the reverse bias voltage
D decrease the reverse bias voltage

The triode and the FET both rely on a reverse voltage on their control electrodes to affect the current through the device.

B-4-4-9 (B) The source of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _ of a bipolar transistor.
A collector
B emitter
C base
D drain

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-10 (B) The drain of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _ of a bipolar transistor.
A emitter
B collector
C base
D source

Comparing Triode/Bipolar Transistor/FET in terms of their RESPECTIVE electrodes: Origin of charge carriers = Cathode/Emitter/Source. Control electrode = Grid/Base/Gate. Destination of charge carriers = Anode(plate)/Collector/Drain.

B-4-4-11 (D) Which two elements in a field effect transistor exhibit fairly similar characteristics?
A Source and gate
B Gate and drain
C Source and base
D Source and drain

Source and Drain are the two ends of the same block of semiconductor material, the ‘Channel’. Only the control electrode, the Gate, is made of the opposite type of material.

B-4-5-1 (A) What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a transistor in a circuit?
A It may be able to handle higher power
B It uses less current
C It is much smaller
D It uses lower voltages

Vacuum triodes are larger, use current just to heat the filament and require higher voltages than transistors BUT they remain simpler to use in HIGH-POWER amplifiers.

B-4-5-2 (C) Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high voltages?
A An electrolytic capacitor
B A multiple-cell battery
C A vacuum tube
D A transistor

key words: AMPLIFY, HIGH VOLTAGE. Vacuum tubes amplify signals but work at higher voltages than transistors (generally low-voltage devices).

B-4-5-3 (C) A feature common to triode tubes and transistors is that both:
A convert electrical energy to radio waves
B use heat to cause electron movement
C can amplify signals
D have electrons drifting through a vacuum

Only vacuum tubes use heat to facilitate electron movement within an envelope free of air.

B-4-5-4 (D) In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is operated with the highest positive potential is the _.
A filament (heater)
B cathode
C grid
D plate

The ‘Plate’ (or Anode) attracts electrons with a high positive voltage. The Cathode emits electrons. The Grid encircles the Cathode and controls the flow of electrons.

B-4-5-5 (A) In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is usually a cylinder of wire mesh is the _.
A grid
B filament (heater)
C cathode
D plate

The ‘Grid’ is a wire mesh (looking like a fence, so to speak) around the Cathode. The ‘Plate’ (or Anode) attracts electrons with a high positive voltage. The Cathode emits electrons. The Grid encircles the Cathode and controls the flow of electrons.

B-4-5-6 (A) In a vacuum tube, the element that is furthest away from the plate is the __.
A filament (heater)
B grid
C emitter
D cathode

key words: ELEMENT, FURTHEST. A “directly-heated triode” comprises a filament (serving as a cathode, emitting electrons), a grid and a plate (or anode). An “indirectly-heated triode” comprises a heater (heating the cathode), a cathode (emitting electrons), a grid and a plate (or anode).

B-4-5-7 (D) In a vacuum tube, the electrode that emits electrons is the __.
A grid
B collector
C plate
D cathode

The ‘Plate’ (or Anode) attracts electrons with a high positive voltage. The Cathode emits electrons. The Grid encircles the Cathode and controls the flow of electrons.

B-4-5-8 (D) What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?
A Argon
B Air
C Neon
D A vacuum

A ‘vacuum’ is the absence of air. Air is pumped out of vacuum tubes (like light bulbs) to prevent the filament from burning up.

B-4-5-9 (B) How many grids are there in a triode vacuum tube?
A Three plus a filament
B One
C Two
D Three

key words: GRID, TRIODE. A triode is a 3-electrode device: a cathode, a single GRID and a plate (or anode).

{L08} Antennas.

(to be organized)

B-3-9-1 (C) In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the __ is primarily for mechanical support purposes.
A driven element
B director
C boom
D reflector

The ‘boom’ supports the elements of the Yagi.

B-3-9-2 (A) In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the __ is the longest radiating element.
A reflector
B director
C driven element
D boom

The ‘boom’ supports the elements of the Yagi. Element dimensions on a Yagi; the ‘Driven’ = a half-wave dipole, 95% of a half-wavelength in free space = (300 / MHz / 2) * 95%. The ‘Reflector’, in back of the ‘driven’ = 5% longer than the ‘driven’. The ‘Director’, in front of the ‘driven, = 5% shorter than the ‘driven’.

B-3-9-3 (C) In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the __ is the shortest radiating element.
A reflector
B driven element
C director
D boom

The ‘boom’ supports the elements of the Yagi. Element dimensions on a Yagi; the ‘Driven’ = a half-wave dipole, 95% of a half-wavelength in free space = (300 / MHz / 2) * 95%. The ‘Reflector’, in back of the ‘driven’ = 5% longer than the ‘driven’. The ‘Director’, in front of the ‘driven, = 5% shorter than the ‘driven’.

B-3-9-4 (C) In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the __is not the longest nor the shortest radiating element.
A director
B reflector
C driven element
D boom

The ‘boom’ supports the elements of the Yagi. Element dimensions on a Yagi; the ‘Driven’ = a half-wave dipole, 95% of a half-wavelength in free space = (300 / MHz / 2) * 95%. The ‘Reflector’ (in back of the ‘driven’) = 5% longer than the ‘driven’. The ‘Director’ (in front of the ‘driven) = 5% shorter than the ‘driven’.

B-6-7-1 (C) What does horizontal wave polarization mean?
A The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth’s surface
B The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth’s surface
C The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth’s surface
D The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth’s surface

An electromagnetic wave comprises an electrical field and a magnetic field. Wave Polarization describes the position of the ELECTRIC field with respect to the Earth’s surface. On a dipole antenna or on the ‘driven’ element of a Yagi, the electric field is developed between the tips of the radiating element.

B-6-7-2 (B) What does vertical wave polarization mean?
A The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth’s surface
B The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth’s surface
C The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth’s surface
D The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth’s surface

An electromagnetic wave comprises an electrical field and a magnetic field. Wave Polarization describes the position of the ELECTRIC field with respect to the Earth’s surface. On a dipole antenna or on the ‘driven’ element of a Yagi, the electric field is developed between the tips of the radiating element.

B-6-7-3 (B) What electromagnetic wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the Earth’s surface?
A Circular
B Horizontal
C Helical
D Vertical

An electromagnetic wave comprises an electrical field and a magnetic field. Wave Polarization describes the position of the ELECTRIC field with respect to the Earth’s surface. On a dipole antenna or on the ‘driven’ element of a Yagi, the electric field is developed between the tips of the radiating element.

B-6-7-4 (C) What electromagnetic wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the Earth’s surface?
A Horizontal
B Parabolical
C Vertical
D Circular

An electromagnetic wave comprises an electrical field and a magnetic field. Wave Polarization describes the position of the ELECTRIC field with respect to the Earth’s surface. On a dipole antenna or on the ‘driven’ element of a Yagi, the electric field is developed between the tips of the radiating element.

B-6-7-5 (B) Polarization of an antenna is determined by:
A the magnetic field
B the orientation of the electric field relative to the Earth’s surface
C the height of the antenna
D the type of antenna

An electromagnetic wave comprises an electrical field and a magnetic field. Wave Polarization describes the position of the ELECTRIC field with respect to the Earth’s surface. On a dipole antenna or on the ‘driven’ element of a Yagi, the electric field is developed between the tips of the radiating element.

B-6-7-6 (C) An isotropic antenna is:
A a dummy load
B a half-wave reference dipole
C a hypothetical point source
D an infinitely long piece of wire

‘Isotropic’ means “equal radiation in all directions”. An ‘isotropic antenna’, also called ‘isotropic radiator’ is an HYPOTHETICAL point source. Plotting the pattern in all planes around the source would yield a ‘sphere’ as a pattern. The ‘isotropic antenna’ is used as a reference to compare the gain of real antennas.

B-6-7-7 (D) What is the antenna radiation pattern for an isotropic radiator?
A A parabola
B A cardioid
C A unidirectional cardioid
D A sphere

‘Isotropic’ means “equal radiation in all directions”. An ‘isotropic antenna’, also called ‘isotropic radiator’ is an HYPOTHETICAL point source. Plotting the pattern in all planes around the source would yield a ‘sphere’ as a pattern. The ‘isotropic antenna’ is used as a reference to compare the gain of real antennas.

B-6-7-8 (A) VHF signals from a mobile station using a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received using a:
A vertical ground-plane antenna
B random length of wire
C horizontal ground-plane antenna
D horizontal dipole antenna

key words: VHF, VERTICAL. On ‘line of sight’ propagation (common at Very High Frequencies) and with Ground Wave propagation (common at the low end of High Frequencies), a significant loss is incurred if the antennas on both extremities do NOT have the same polarization.

B-6-7-9 (D) A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is:
A fed with the correct type of RF
B too near to the ground
C parallel with the ground
D mounted vertically

An electromagnetic wave comprises an electrical field and a magnetic field. Wave Polarization describes the position of the ELECTRIC field with respect to the Earth’s surface. On a dipole antenna or on the ‘driven’ element of a Yagi, the electric field is developed between the tips of the radiating element.

B-6-7-10 (C) If an electromagnetic wave leaves an antenna vertically polarized, it will arrive at the receiving antenna, by ground wave:
A horizontally polarized
B polarized in any plane
C vertically polarized
D polarized at right angles to original

key words: GROUND WAVE. On ‘line of sight’ propagation (common at Very High Frequencies) and with Ground Wave propagation (common at the low end of High Frequencies), a significant loss is incurred if the antennas on both extremities do NOT have the same polarization.

B-6-7-11 (D) Compared with a horizontal antenna, a vertical antenna will receive a vertically polarized radio wave:
A at weaker strength
B without any comparative difference
C if the antenna changes the polarization
D at greater strength

On ‘line of sight’ propagation (common at Very High Frequencies) and with Ground Wave propagation (common at the low end of High Frequencies), a significant loss is incurred if the antennas on both extremities do NOT have the same polarization.

B-6-8-1 (C) If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant frequency?
A It stays the same
B It disappears
C It decreases
D It increases

Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship. Antennas on the 80 metre HF (3.5 to 4.0 MHz) band are much longer than antennas on the 2 metre VHF band (144 to 148 MHz).

B-6-8-2 (A) If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant frequency?
A It increases
B It stays the same
C It disappears
D It decreases

Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship. Antennas on the 2 metre VHF band (144 to 148 MHz) are much shorter than antennas on the 80 metre HF band (3.5 to 4.0 MHz).

B-6-8-3 (C) The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is:
A 4 metres (13.1 ft)
B 32 metres (105 ft)
C 12 metres (39.4 ft)
D 15 metres (49.2 ft)

Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, 300 / 25 = 12 metres.

B-6-8-4 (A) The velocity of propagation of radio frequency energy in free space is:
A 300 000 kilometres per second
B 3000 kilometres per second
C 150 kilometres per second
D 186 000 kilometres per second

Radio waves in free space travel at the speed of light: 300 000 kilometres per second.

B-6-8-5 (D) Adding a series inductance to an antenna would:
A increase the resonant frequency
B have little effect
C have no change on the resonant frequency
D decrease the resonant frequency

A series inductance in an antenna is termed a “loading coil”. It makes the antenna appear LONGER electrically than its physical size. Making the antenna longer brings down the resonant frequency.

B-6-8-6 (B) The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by:
A lengthening the radiating element
B shortening the radiating element
C lowering the radiating element
D increasing the height of the radiating element

Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship. Increasing the resonant frequency (shorter wavelength) can be achieved by shortening the radiating element.

B-6-8-7 (A) The speed of a radio wave:
A is the same as the speed of light
B is infinite in space
C is always less than half speed of light
D varies directly with frequency

Radio waves in free space travel at the speed of light: 300 000 kilometres per second.

B-6-8-8 (A) At the end of suspended antenna wire, insulators are used. These act to:
A limit the electrical length of the antenna
B increase the effective antenna length
C allow the antenna to be more easily held vertically
D prevent any loss of radio waves by the antenna

Insulators mark the end of the antenna. Thus, wet support ropes or metallic support wires do not become part of the antenna.

B-6-8-9 (C) To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should:
A ground one end
B centre feed it with TV ribbon transmission line
C lengthen it
D shorten it

Wavelength and frequency have an inverse relationship. Decreasing the resonant frequency (longer wavelength) can be achieved by lengthening the radiating element.

B-6-8-10 (D) One solution to multiband operation with a shortened radiator is the “trap dipole” or trap vertical. These “traps” are actually:
A large wire-wound resistors
B coils wrapped around a ferrite rod
C hollow metal cans
D a coil and capacitor in parallel

“Antenna traps” are parallel resonant circuits which exhibit high impedance at resonance. Electrically speaking, they cut-off the antenna at the trap position when operated at the resonant frequency of the trap.

B-6-8-11 (A) The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 2 MHz is:
A 150 m (492 ft)
B 360 m (1181 ft)
C 1500 m (4921 ft)
D 30 m (98 ft)

Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, 300 / 2 = 150 metres.

B-6-9-1 (D) What is a parasitic beam antenna?
A An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements
B An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the transmission line
C An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements
D An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element

The term ‘parasite’ means “feeding off something else”. For instance, in a Yagi, there is only one ‘driven’ element where the transmission line attaches. The ‘reflector’ and ‘director’ capture energy off the ‘driven’ and re-radiate it.

B-6-9-2 (A) How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?
A Use larger diameter elements
B Use traps on the elements
C Use tapered-diameter elements
D Use closer element spacing

‘Antenna bandwidth’ is the range of frequencies over which an antenna is usable. Larger-diameter elements means “thicker” elements. With “fatter” elements, resonance isn’t as sharp. Antenna ‘bandwidth’ is increased.

B-6-9-3 (A) If a parasitic element slightly shorter than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna’s radiation pattern?
A A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the dipole toward the parasitic element
B A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements
C A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground
D The radiation pattern will not be affected

key words: PARASITIC, SHORTER. A ‘slightly shorter parasitic’ element is the description of a ‘Director’. A dipole and a ‘director’ in front of it make up a two-element Yagi. Radiation will be enhanced toward the ‘director’ at the expense of the back.

B-6-9-4 (D) If a parasitic element slightly longer than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna’s radiation pattern?
A A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements
B A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground
C The radiation pattern will not be affected
D A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the parasitic element toward the dipole

key words: PARASITIC, LONGER. A ‘slightly longer parasitic’ element is the description of a ‘reflector’. A dipole and a ‘reflector’ behind it make up a two-element Yagi. Radiation will be enhanced away from the ‘reflector’, towards the radiating element (the dipole, the ‘driven’).

B-6-9-5 (A) The property of an antenna, which defines the range of frequencies to which it will respond, is called its:
A bandwidth
B front-to-back ratio
C impedance
D polarization

‘Antenna Bandwidth’ is the range of frequencies over which Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) is acceptable.

B-6-9-6 (B) Approximately how much gain does a half-wave dipole have over an isotropic radiator?
A 6.0 dB
B 2.1 dB
C 1.5 dB
D 3.0 dB

An ‘isotropic radiator’ radiates equally well in ALL directions ( radiation pattern is a ‘sphere’). A dipole in free space has a radiation pattern similar to a donut ( maximum radiation broadside from the antenna, none towards the ends ). This concentration of radiation produce a gain of 2.1 dB over an isotropic antenna.

B-6-9-7 (D) What is meant by antenna gain?
A The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction
B The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
C The power amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses
D The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna

Antenna Gain is a ratio, expressed in decibel, of the radiation of a given antenna against some reference antenna. For example, the expression ‘dBi’ means decibel over an isotropic radiator.

B-6-9-8 (D) What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
A Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B The angle between the half-power radiation points
C The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements
D The frequency range over which the antenna may be expected to perform well

‘Antenna Bandwidth’ is the range of frequencies over which Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) is acceptable.

B-6-9-9 (C) In free space, what is the radiation characteristic of a half-wave dipole?
A Omnidirectional
B Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to the plane of the antenna
C Minimum radiation from the ends, maximum broadside
D Maximum radiation from the ends, minimum broadside

A dipole in free space has a radiation pattern similar to a donut ( maximum radiation broadside from the antenna, none towards the ends ). This concentration of radiation produce a gain of 2.1 dB over an isotropic antenna.

B-6-9-10 (A) The gain of an antenna, especially on VHF and above, is quoted in dBi. The “i” in this expression stands for:
A isotropic
B ideal
C ionosphere
D interpolated

Antenna Gain is a ratio, expressed in decibel, of the radiation of a given antenna against some reference antenna. For example, the expression ‘dBi’ means decibel over an isotropic radiator.

B-6-9-11 (A) The front-to-back ratio of a beam antenna is:
A the ratio of the maximum forward power in the major lobe to the maximum backward power radiation
B the forward power of the major lobe to the power in the backward direction both being measured at the 3 dB points
C undefined
D the ratio of the forward power at the 3 dB points to the power radiated in the backward direction

‘Beam antenna’ is another name for a Yagi. ‘Front to back’ is a ratio in decibels of the power radiated in the most favoured direction (front) to the power radiated towards the back of the antenna.

B-6-10-1 (B) How do you calculate the length in metres (feet) of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna?
A Divide 150 (491) by the antenna’s operating frequency in MHz
B Divide 71.5 (234) by the antenna’s operating frequency in MHz
C Divide 468 (1532) by the antenna’s operating frequency in MHz
D Divide 300 (982) by the antenna’s operating frequency in MHz

key words: QUARTER-wavelength. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. Answer: 95 % of one quarter wavelength in free space = ‘300 / 4 * 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz = 71.3 divided by frequency in megahertz.

B-6-10-2 (B) If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 21.125 MHz, how long would it be?
A 6.76 metres (22.2 ft)
B 3.36 metres (11.0 ft)
C 3.6 metres (11.8 ft)
D 7.2 metres (23.6 ft)

key words: QUARTER-wavelength. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. Answer: 95 % of one quarter wavelength in free space = ‘300 / 4 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz = 71.3 divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, ‘300 / 21.125 MHz / 4 0.95’ = 3.37 metres.

B-6-10-3 (A) If you made a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it be?
A 64 cm (25.2 in)
B 128 cm (50.4 in)
C 105 cm (41.3 in)
D 134.6 cm (53 in)

key words: HALF-wavelength. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. Answer: 95 % of one half wavelength in free space = ‘300 / 2 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz = 143 divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, ‘300 / 223 MHz / 2 0.95’ = 0.64 metres.

B-6-10-4 (C) Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna better than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile operations?
A A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to install on a car
B A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power
C A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain
D A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less corona loss

The ‘five eights’ wavelength antenna focuses energy somewhat better towards the horizon (lower radiation angle) than a regular quarter-wave antenna.

B-6-10-5 (B) If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy?
A Most of it goes in one direction
B It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions
C Most of it is aimed high into the sky
D Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions

An upright antenna element radiates equally well all around it in the horizontal plane.

B-6-10-6 (B) What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground plane antenna?
A It lowers the radiation angle
B It brings the feed point impedance closer to 50 ohms
C It increases the radiation angle
D It brings the feed point impedance closer to 300 ohms

Radials are the three or four rods simulating ground at the base of an elevated vertical antenna (ground plane antenna). Sloping radials (lower than 90 degrees) BRING up the impedance from about 30 ohms to 50 ohms for a better direct match to coaxial cable.

B-6-10-7 (B) What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
A It approaches zero
B It increases
C It decreases
D It stays the same

Radials are the three or four rods simulating ground at the base of an elevated vertical antenna (ground plane antenna). Sloping radials (lower than 90 degrees) BRING up the impedance from about 30 ohms to 50 ohms for a better direct match to coaxial cable.

B-6-10-8 (B) Which of the following transmission lines will give the best match to the base of a quarter-wave ground-plane antenna?
A 300 ohms coaxial cable
B 50 ohms coaxial cable
C 300 ohms balanced transmission line
D 75 ohms balanced transmission line

A quarter-wave ground plane antenna exhibits a feedpoint impedance fairly close to 50 ohms.

B-6-10-9 (D) The main characteristic of a vertical antenna is that it will:
A be very sensitive to signals coming from horizontal antennas
B require few insulators
C be easy to feed with TV ribbon transmission line
D receive signals equally well from all compass points around it

An upright antenna element radiates equally well all around it in the horizontal plane. It is termed ‘omni-directional’.

B-6-10-10 (B) Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile vertical antenna?
A To filter out electrical noise
B To tune out capacitive reactance
C To lower the losses
D To lower the Q

Short answer: a coil (inductor) has a behaviour totally opposite to capacitors; ‘cancelling reactive capacitance’ makes sense. A short antenna (e.g., 2.5 m) operated on HF frequencies (wavelengths of 10 to 80 metres) looks like an antenna operated well below its natural resonant frequency. If you think of an ideal antenna as a resonant circuit where capacitive and inductive reactances cancel each other, you’ll note that CAPACITIVE reactance ( XC = 1 over ‘2 PI f * C’ ) grows below the resonant frequency. A “loading coil” cancels out that capacitive reactance.

B-6-10-11 (D) What is the main reason why so many VHF base and mobile antennas are 5/8 of a wavelength?
A The angle of radiation is high giving excellent local coverage
B It is easy to match the antenna to the transmitter
C It’s a convenient length on VHF
D The angle of radiation is low

The ‘five eights’ wavelength antenna focuses energy somewhat better towards the horizon (lower radiation angle) than a regular quarter-wave antenna.

B-6-11-1 (D) How many directly driven elements do most Yagi antennas have?
A Two
B Three
C None
D One

Generally speaking, a parasitic beam antenna has one ‘driven’ element where the transmission line attaches.

B-6-11-2 (D) Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz?
A 5.21 metres (17 feet)
B 10.67 metres (35 feet)
C 20.12 metres (66 feet)
D 10.21 metres (33.5 feet)

key word: DRIVEN. Same approximate length as a HALF-WAVE dipole. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. Answer: 95 % of one half wavelength in free space = ‘(300 / 2) 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz = 143 divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, ‘(300 / 14 MHz / 2) 0.95’ = 10.18 metres.

B-6-11-3 (D) Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz?
A 5.18 metres (17 feet)
B 3.2 metres (10.5 feet)
C 12.8 metres (42 feet)
D 6.4 metres (21 feet)

key word: DIRECTOR. About 5% SHORTER than the ‘driven’ which is itself the approximate length of a HALF-WAVE dipole. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. The ‘driven’ would be 95 % of one half wavelength in free space = ‘(300 / 2) 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz. The DIRECTOR is another 95% of the length of the ‘driven’. In this example, the director becomes (300 / 21.1 MHz / 2) 0.95 * 0.95 = 6.42 metres.

B-6-11-4 (B) Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz?
A 2.66 metres (8.75 feet)
B 5.33 metres (17.5 feet)
C 4.88 metres (16 feet)
D 10.67 metres (35 feet)

key word: REFLECTOR. About 5% LONGER than the ‘driven’ which is itself the approximate length of a HALF-WAVE dipole. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. The ‘driven’ would be 95 % of one half wavelength in free space = ‘(300 / 2) 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz. The REFLECTOR is 1.05 times the length of the ‘driven’. In this example, the reflector becomes (300 / 28.1 MHz / 2) 0.95 * 1.05 = 5.32 metres.

B-6-11-5 (D) What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
A SWR increases
B Weight decreases
C Wind load decreases
D Gain increases

More directors is the primary means of augmenting gain. [ Weight and ‘wind load’ certainly increase then. ]

B-6-11-6 (A) What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?
A High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth
B High gain, lower loss and a low SWR
C High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance
D Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance

‘Lower loss’, ‘lower input resistance’ and ‘shorter boom length’ are all misleading clues.

B-6-11-7 (C) Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20-metre band?
A It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna
B It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands
C It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind
D It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane

20 metres is an amateur band with global reach. It is open during day time even during solar cycle lows. The directive antenna pattern of a Yagi permits reducing interference by focusing energy in one direction only.

B-6-11-8 (B) What does “antenna front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
A The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
C The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
D The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction

‘Front to back’ is a ratio in decibels of the power radiated in the most favoured direction (front) to the power radiated towards the back of the antenna.

B-6-11-9 (C) What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna?
A Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each direction around the antenna
B Avoid using towers higher than 9 metres (30 feet) above the ground
C Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements
D Use RG-58 transmission line

All dimensions in Yagis must be optimized: the lengths and positions of each elements influence final performance. [ Center frequency, feedpoint impedance, forward gain, antenna bandwidth and front-to-back ratio all change with changing physical dimensions. ]

B-6-11-10 (D) The spacing between the elements on a three-element Yagi antenna, representing the best overall choice, is _ of a wavelength.
A 0.10
B 0.50
C 0.75
D 0.20

Two tenths of a wavelength is reputed to be an optimum choice on a 3-element beam.

B-6-11-11 (C) If the forward gain of a six-element Yagi is about 10 dBi, what would the gain of two of these antennas be if they were “stacked”?
A 20 dBi
B 10 dBi
C 13 dBi
D 7 dBi

This is a trick question. Two identical antennas side by side doubles the radiated power. An increase of 2 in power is a gain of +3 dB. The gain of the array becomes 10 dBi + 3 dB = 13 dBi.

B-6-12-1 (D) If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 28.150 MHz, how long would it be?
A 10.5 metres (34.37 ft)
B 28.55 metres (93.45 ft)
C 10.16 metres (33.26 ft)
D 5.08 metres (16.62 ft)

key words: half-wavelength DIPOLE. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. A ‘dipole’ is approximately 95 % of one half wavelength in free space = ‘(300 / 2) 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, the dipole must be (300 / 28.15 MHz / 2) 0.95 = 5.06 metres. The frequency is in the 10 metre band of 28.0 to 29.7 MHz, a dipole there must be necessarily 5 metres long.

B-6-12-2 (B) What is one disadvantage of a random wire antenna?
A You must use an inverted T matching network for multi-band operation
B You may experience RF feedback in your station
C It usually produces vertically polarized radiation
D It must be longer than 1 wavelength

Because the ‘random wire’ and ‘long wire’ antennas frequently originate right at the back of the antenna tuner in your station, stray RF (radio frequency) can be a problem.

B-6-12-3 (D) What is the low angle radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF antenna in free space installed parallel to the Earth?
A It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
B It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe on the other side
C It is a figure-eight, off both ends of the antenna
D It is a figure-eight, perpendicular to the antenna

Picture an horizontal dipole viewed from above. If you plotted radiation all around it, the plot would look like a “number eight”: peak radiation at 90 degrees (broadside) from the antenna, negligible radiation from the ends.

B-6-12-4 (C) The impedances in ohms at the feed point of the dipole and folded dipole in free space are, respectively:
A 52 and 100
B 52 and 200
C 73 and 300
D 73 and 150

Feedpoint impedance of a dipole in free space: 73 ohms. Feedpoint impedance of a Folded Dipole: 300 ohms.

B-6-12-5 (A) A horizontal dipole transmitting antenna, installed at an ideal height so that the ends are pointing North/South, radiates:
A mostly to the East and West
B mostly to the South and North
C mostly to the South
D equally in all directions

Picture an horizontal dipole viewed from above, if you plotted radiation all around it, the plot would look like a “number eight”: peak radiation at 90 degrees (broadside) from the antenna, negligible radiation from the ends.

B-6-12-6 (A) How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna?
A It is greater
B It is essentially the same
C It is less than 50%
D It is 0.707 times the bandwidth

‘Antenna Bandwidth’ is the range of frequencies over which Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) is acceptable. The Folded Dipole can be operated over a wider range of frequencies than a regular dipole.

B-6-12-7 (D) What is a disadvantage of using an antenna equipped with traps?
A It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
B It must be neutralized
C It can only be used for one band
D It may radiate harmonics more readily

An antenna with traps is a multi-band antenna (i.e., resonant at more than one frequency). If the transmitter leaks harmonic energy (multiples of the operating frequency), this harmonic energy may be more readily radiated by a multi-band antenna. For example, traps are inserted in an antenna for 80 metres to permit operation on 40 metres; if your transmitter puts out ‘harmonics’ while you operate on 80 m ( say, 3.5 MHz ), the second harmonic falls in the 40 m band. The antenna is also resonant at that frequency and would freely radiate the harmonics.

B-6-12-8 (D) What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?
A It has high directivity at the higher frequencies
B It has high gain
C It minimizes harmonic radiation
D It may be used for multi-band operation

The only reason why antenna traps (parallel resonant circuits) are useful is to permit operation on more than one band from the same physical antenna. Through their high impedance at resonance, traps shorten the antenna by making the antenna sections beyond them inaccessible.

B-6-12-9 (D) If you were to cut a half wave dipole for 3.75 MHz, what would be its approximate length?
A 32 meters (105 ft)
B 45 meters (145 ft)
C 75 meters (245 ft)
D 38 meters (125 ft)

Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. The dipole is approximately 95 % of one half wavelength in free space = ‘(300 / 2) 0.95’ divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, the dipole must be cut to (300 / 3.75 MHz / 2) 0.95 = 38 metres. [ 3.75 MHz is in the 80 metre band of 3.5 to 4.0 MHz, a DIPOLE there must be below 40 metres long ].

B-6-13-1 (D) What is a cubical quad antenna?
A A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long
B A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom
C Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long
D Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long

The ‘cubical quad’ is a parasitic array made of one-wavelength LOOPS (square or diamond-shaped).

B-6-13-2 (C) What is a delta loop antenna?
A An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape
B An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form
C An antenna whose elements are each a three sided loop whose total length is approximately one electrical wavelength
D A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding

A ‘delta’ is a parasitic array made of one-wavelength LOOPS with a triangular shape.

B-6-13-3 (A) Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz?
A 3.54 metres (11.7 feet)
B 0.36 metres (1.17 feet)
C 14.33 metres (47 feet)
D 143 metres (469 feet)

key word: CUBICAL QUAD. A four-sided loop. Loop antennas are roughly 1 wavelength long. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. The ‘driven’ element in a LOOP is 2% longer than a full wavelength in free space = ‘300 1.02’ divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, ONE side of the quad becomes (300 1.02) / 21.4 MHz / 4 = 3.57 metres.

B-6-13-4 (A) Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz?
A 5.36 metres (17.6 feet)
B 21.43 metres (70.3 feet)
C 53.34 metres (175 feet)
D 7.13 metres (23.4 feet)

key word: CUBICAL QUAD. A four-sided loop. Loop antennas are roughly 1 wavelength long. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. The ‘driven’ element in a LOOP is 2% longer than a full wavelength in free space = ‘300 1.02’ divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, ONE side of the quad becomes (300 1.02) / 14.3 MHz / 4 = 5.35 metres.

B-6-13-5 (B) Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
A 10.67 metres (35 feet)
B 3.5 metres (11.5 feet)
C 2.67 metres (8.75 feet)
D 7.13 metres (23.4 feet)

key word: DELTA LOOP. A three-sided loop. Loop antennas are roughly 1 wavelength long. Wavelength (lambda) in metres IN FREE SPACE is 300 divided by frequency in megahertz. The ‘driven’ element in a LOOP is 2% longer than a full wavelength in free space = ‘300 1.02’ divided by frequency in megahertz. In this example, ONE side of the DELTA becomes (300 1.02) / 28.7 MHz / 3 = 3.55 metres.

B-6-13-6 (C) Which statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas is true?
A They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire
B They perform poorly above HF
C They compare favourably with a three-element Yagi
D They perform very well only at HF

Because quads and deltas focus energy in both planes, horizontal and vertical, the two-element quad performs similarly to a three-element Yagi.

B-6-13-7 (C) Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical quad antenna?
A The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane
B The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes
C The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes
D The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane

A quad with its four-sided architecture focuses energy in the vertical (up and down) AND horizontal (left to right) planes.

B-6-13-8 (A) Moving the feed point of a multi-element quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect?
A It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical
B It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal
C It will significantly decrease the antenna feed point impedance
D It will significantly increase the antenna feed point impedance

In your head, squish the quad from the top down, it now looks like a Folded Dipole. If the Folded dipole is horizontal, it is polarized horizontally. Flip it 90 degrees and it now has a vertical polarization.

B-6-13-9 (C) What does the term “antenna front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a delta loop antenna?
A The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
B The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
C The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

Same as a Yagi. ‘Front to back’ is a ratio in decibels of the power radiated in the most favoured direction (front) to the power radiated towards the back of the antenna.

B-6-13-10 (A) The cubical “quad” or “quad” antenna consists of two or more square loops of wire. The driven element has an approximate overall length of:
A one wavelength
B three-quarters of a wavelength
C two wavelengths
D one-half wavelength

key words: LOOP, OVERALL length. A loop antenna is a little over 1 wavelength long (1.02 wavelength to be precise).

B-6-13-11 (A) The delta loop antenna consists of two or more triangular structures mounted on a boom. The overall length of the driven element is approximately:
A one wavelength
B one-quarter of a wavelength
C two wavelengths
D one-half of a wavelength

key words: LOOP, OVERALL length. A loop antenna is a little over 1 wavelength long (1.02 wavelength to be precise).

{L09a} Power Supplies.

(to be organized)

B-3-8-1 (C) In a regulated power supply, the transformer connects to an external source which is referred to as__.
A filter
B rectifier
C input
D regulator

The external source will frequently be a wall socket where 120 volts AC is available. The blocks in a Regulated Power Supply: Input, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator, Output.

B-3-8-2 (C) In a regulated power supply, the _ is between the input and the rectifier.
A regulator
B filter
C transformer
D output

Prior to rectification with diodes, a transformer lowers or raises the voltage (to bring it closer to the desired output voltage). The blocks in a Regulated Power Supply: Input, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator, Output.

B-3-8-3 (C) In a regulated power supply, the _ is between the transformer and the filter.
A output
B regulator
C rectifier
D input

The ‘Rectifier’ (diodes) converts AC into ‘pulsating DC’ which is then smoothed out into pure DC by a ‘Filter’ (often simply a capacitor). The blocks in a Regulated Power Supply: Input, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator, Output.

B-3-8-4 (C) In a regulated power supply, the output of the rectifier is connected to the __.
A transformer
B regulator
C filter
D output

The ‘Rectifier’ (diodes) converts AC into ‘pulsating DC’ which is then smoothed out into pure DC by a ‘Filter’ (often simply a capacitor). The blocks in a Regulated Power Supply: Input, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator, Output.

B-3-8-5 (D) In a regulated power supply, the output of the filter connects to the __.
A transformer
B rectifier
C output
D regulator

The pure DC available after the ‘Filter’ goes through the ‘Regulator’ which maintains a constant output voltage regardless of input variations or load changes. The blocks in a Regulated Power Supply: Input, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator, Output.

B-3-8-6 (B) In a regulated power supply, the _ is connected to the regulator.
A transformer
B output
C rectifier
D input

The ‘Output’ circuitry (fuses, meters, output terminals) connects to the ‘Regulator’. The blocks in a Regulated Power Supply: Input, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator, Output.

B-3-17-1 (D) If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first?
A The speaker
B The microphone
C The SWR meter
D The power supply

In the car, the transceiver gets power from the car battery. In the home, a power supply provides the 12 volts DC necessary for the transceiver. From the car to the home, the prime difference is the source of voltage.

B-3-17-2 (A) What device converts household current to 12 volts DC?
A A power supply
B A low pass filter
C An RS-232 interface
D A catalytic converter

A large percentage of modern transceivers are designed to work off 12 volts DC which is readily available from a car battery. To use a rig in the home, a ‘Power Supply’ is required: a ‘Power Supply’ combines a transformer, rectifier and filter to convert 120 volts AC down to 12 volts DC.

B-3-17-3 (B) Which of these usually needs a high current capacity power supply?
A An SWR meter
B A transceiver
C An antenna switch
D A receiver

key words: HIGH CURRENT. Receivers rarely draw more than 1 ampere at 12 VDC. A 100 watt transceiver (while on transmit) can draw 20 amperes at 12 VDC.

B-3-17-4 (D) What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter?
A Using an antenna which is the wrong length
B Energy from another transmitter
C Bad design of the transmitter’s RF power output circuit
D A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter’s power supply

key word: HUM. Remember the ‘Power Supply’ block diagram: a ‘Rectifier’ (diode) converts AC into ‘pulsating DC’. A ‘Filter’ then turns the ‘pulsating DC’ into pure DC. If the ‘Filter’ is deficient, hum or buzzing will appear on the transmitted signal.

B-3-17-5 (B) A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than:
A 6 watts
B 60 watts
C 17 watts
D 2.4 watts

Power, expressed in watts = voltage, in volts, TIMES current, in amperes. P = E I. Watts = volts amperes.

B-3-17-6 (B) The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it:
A allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode
B allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode
C has a high resistance to AC but not to DC
D has a high resistance to DC but not to AC

A DIODE, vacuum tube or semiconductor, has two electrodes: Anode and Cathode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode.

B-3-17-7 (B) To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a:
A resistor
B diode
C transformer
D capacitor

A DIODE, vacuum tube or semiconductor, has two electrodes: Anode and Cathode. Electrons flow from Cathode to Anode in a forward-biased (i.e., a diode subjected to a voltage polarity which permits conduction) diode.

B-3-17-8 (B) Power-line voltages have been made standard over the years and the voltages generally supplied to homes are approximately:
A 130 and 260 volts
B 120 and 240 volts
C 110 and 220 volts
D 100 and 200 volts

Nominal household voltages have slowly come up since the early 20th century from 110 V, to 115 V, to 117 V, to 120 V. The current standard is 120 V and 240 V. 240 V is used for energy-hungry devices like water heaters, clothes dryers, electric ovens AND high-power linear amplifiers.

B-3-17-9 (C) Your mobile HF transceiver draws 22 amperes on transmit. The manufacturer suggests limiting voltage drop to 0.5 volt and the vehicle battery is 3 metres (10 feet) away. Given the losses below at that current, which minimum wire gauge must you use?
A Number 12, 0.11 V per metre (0.03 V per foot)
B Number 8, 0.05 V per metre (0.01 V per foot)
C Number 10, 0.07 V per metre (0.02 V per foot)
D Number 14, 0.19 V per metre (0.06 V per foot)

Understand that DC power is brought to the radio over a pair of wires. Each wire must not drop more than 0.25 volt (half the given value) over 3 metres. Thus, the loss per metre must be below 0.08 volt. The run must be at least number 10 gauge. Voltage drops (E = R x I) at that current were computed for you from resistance value per unit length available from wire tables. [ # 14 = 1.63 mm (0.06 in.), # 12 = 2.05 mm (0.08 in.), # 10 = 2.59 mm (0.10 in.), # 8 = 3.26 mm (0.13 in.) ]

B-3-17-10 (A) Why are fuses needed as close as possible to the vehicle battery when wiring a transceiver directly to the battery?
A To prevent an overcurrent situation from starting a fire
B To prevent interference to the vehicle’s electronic systems
C To reduce the voltage drop in the radio’s DC supply
D To protect the radio from transient voltages

A car battery can deliver a hundred amperes or more into a short circuit; the voltage drop in any current-carrying wire and such large currents produce heat (P = E x I), enough heat to melt wire insulation and other plastics which abound in cars. Fuses close to the battery ensure excessive current is interrupted regardless of where the fault occurs over the DC power line to the radio.

B-3-17-11 (A) You have a very loud low-frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble?
A The power supply
B The variable-frequency oscillator
C The driver circuit
D The power amplifier circuit

key word: HUM. Remember the ‘Power Supply’ block diagram: a ‘Rectifier’ (diode) converts AC into ‘pulsating DC’. A ‘Filter’ then turns the ‘pulsating DC’ into pure DC. If the ‘Filter’ is deficient, hum or buzzing will appear on the transmitted signal.

{L10} Modulation and Transmitters.

(to be organized)

B-3-2-1 (B) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the:
A frequency multiplier
B microphone
C modulator
D power amplifier

key words: INPUT to SPEECH AMPLIFIER. The Speech Amplifier serves to bring up the feeble microphone signal to a working level. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-2-2 (D) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the:
A modulator
B power amplifier
C oscillator
D speech amplifier

The Speech Amplifier serves to bring up the feeble microphone signal to a working level. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-2-3 (D) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the __is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator.
A power amplifier
B microphone
C frequency multiplier
D modulator

key words: FM TANSMITTER. Frequency Modulation depends on frequency deviation to carry the message. The obvious way to effect deviation is to use modulation to alter the Oscillator frequency. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-2-4 (B) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the __is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier.
A microphone
B oscillator
C speech amplifier
D power amplifier

The Oscillator frequency and the deviation impressed on it by the Modulator are brought up to the operating frequency through multiplication. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-2-5 (A) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier.
A frequency multiplier
B microphone
C speech amplifier
D modulator

The Oscillator frequency and the deviation impressed on it by the Modulator are brought up to the operating frequency through multiplication. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-2-6 (B) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _ is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna.
A oscillator
B power amplifier
C modulator
D speech amplifier

In all transmitters, the last stage before the Antenna is a Power Amplifier which imparts the transmitted signal its actual power. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-2-7 (B) In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the:
A modulator
B antenna
C frequency multiplier
D microphone

In all transmitters, the last stage before the Antenna is a Power Amplifier which imparts the transmitted signal its actual power. The FM Transmitter block diagram: Microphone, Speech Amplifier, Modulator, Oscillator, Frequency Multiplier, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-4-1 (C) In a CW transmitter, the output from the __ is connected to the driver/buffer.
A telegraph key
B power supply
C master oscillator
D power amplifier

To achieve stability (absence of frequency ‘drift’), Master Oscillators are always low-power stages. Amplification must follow; that’s the purpose of the Driver/Buffer. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna. A Power Supply supplies DC to all stages. A Telegraph Key activates the Driver and Power Amplifier when pressed.

B-3-4-2 (D) In a typical CW transmitter, the _ is the primary source of direct current.
A driver/buffer
B power amplifier
C master oscillator
D power supply

ALL transmitters require a Power Supply, the primary source of Direct Current (DC), required by active devices such as transistors and vacuum tubes. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna. A Power Supply supplies DC to all stages. A Telegraph Key activates the Driver and Power Amplifier when pressed.

B-3-4-3 (A) In a CW transmitter, the _ is between the master oscillator and the power amplifier.
A driver/buffer
B audio amplifier
C power supply
D telegraph key

To achieve stability, Master Oscillators are always low-level stages. Amplification must follow; that’s the purpose of the Driver/Buffer. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna. A Power Supply supplies DC to all stages. A Telegraph Key activates the Driver and Power Amplifier when pressed.

B-3-4-4 (C) In a CW transmitter, the _ controls when RF energy is applied to the antenna.
A driver/buffer
B power amplifier
C telegraph key
D master oscillator

Telegraphy is equivalent to ‘on-off keying’ ( an ‘interrupted carrier’). The Telegraph Key allows the operator to send bursts of RF energy to the antenna per the rhythm of his hand movement on the key. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna. A Power Supply supplies DC to all stages. A Telegraph Key activates the Driver and Power Amplifier when pressed.

B-3-4-5 (A) In a CW transmitter, the __ is in between the driver/buffer stage and the antenna.
A power amplifier
B power supply
C telegraph key
D master oscillator

In all transmitters, the last stage before the Antenna is a Power Amplifier which imparts the transmitted signal its actual power. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna. A Power Supply supplies DC to all stages. A Telegraph Key activates the Driver and Power Amplifier when pressed.

B-3-4-6 (C) In a CW transmitter, the output of the _ is transferred to the antenna.
A power supply
B master oscillator
C power amplifier
D driver/buffer

In all transmitters, the last stage before the Antenna is a Power Amplifier which imparts the transmitted signal its actual power. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna. A Power Supply supplies DC to all stages. A Telegraph Key activates the Driver and Power Amplifier when pressed.

B-3-6-1 (D) In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the __ is connected to the balanced modulator.
A variable frequency oscillator
B linear amplifier
C mixer
D radio frequency oscillator

The Balanced Modulator receives two inputs: RF Oscillator, Speech Amplifier. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-2 (A) In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the __ is connected to the filter.
A balanced modulator
B microphone
C mixer
D radio frequency oscillator

The Balanced Modulator produces a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal. The Filter keeps one sideband. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-3 (C) In a single sideband transmitter, the _ is in between the balanced modulator and the mixer.
A speech amplifier
B microphone
C filter
D radio frequency oscillator

The Balanced Modulator produces a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal. The Filter keeps one sideband. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-4 (C) In a single sideband transmitter, the __ is connected to the speech amplifier.
A filter
B mixer
C microphone
D radio frequency oscillator

The Speech Amplifier serves to bring up the feeble microphone signal to a working level. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-5 (A) In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _ is connected to the balanced modulator.
A speech amplifier
B filter
C variable frequency oscillator
D linear amplifier

The Balanced Modulator receives two inputs: RF Oscillator, Speech Amplifier. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-6 (B) In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the variable frequency oscillator is connected to the __.
A linear amplifier
B mixer
C antenna
D balanced modulator

The Mixer takes in the SSB signal and the VFO output to bring up the SSB signal at the operating frequency. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-7 (C) In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _ is connected to the mixer.
A linear amplifier
B antenna
C variable frequency oscillator
D radio frequency oscillator

The Mixer takes in the SSB signal and the VFO output to bring up the SSB signal at the operating frequency. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-8 (C) In an single sideband transmitter, the __ is in between the mixer and the antenna.
A balanced modulator
B radio frequency oscillator
C linear amplifier
D variable frequency oscillator

In SSB, the Power Amplifier must be linear because it amplifies an amplitude modulated signal. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-6-9 (B) In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the linear amplifier is connected to the __.
A speech amplifier
B antenna
C filter
D variable frequency oscillator

In SSB, the Power Amplifier must be linear because it amplifies an amplitude modulated signal. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-11-1 (A) What does chirp mean?
A A small change in a transmitter’s frequency each time it is keyed
B A high-pitched tone which is received along with a CW signal
C A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up
D An overload in a receiver’s audio circuit whenever CW is received

“Chirp”: Inadequate voltage regulation causes the Master Oscillator frequency to shift when the Telegraph Key is pressed. Perceived at the receive location as a change of pitch during each Morse element. Frequency ‘drift’ is a lack of stability in the Master Oscillator.

B-3-11-2 (B) What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping?
A Add a low pass filter
B Keep the power supply voltages very steady under transmit load
C Add a key-click filter
D Keep the power supply current very steady under transmit load

“Chirp”: Inadequate voltage regulation causes the Master Oscillator frequency to shift when the Telegraph Key is pressed. Perceived at the receive location as a change of pitch during each Morse element. Current varies as demand varies in a transmitter. A Low-Pass filter reduces ‘harmonics’.

B-3-11-3 (C) What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a buffer/driver and a power amplifier?
A A single-sideband transmitter
B A digital radio transmitter
C A VFO-controlled CW transmitter
D A crystal-controlled AM transmitter

key words: VFO, Variable Frequency Oscillator. The CW Transmitter block diagram: Master Oscillator, Driver/Buffer, Power Amplifier, Antenna.

B-3-11-4 (D) What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A Phase modulation
B Amplitude-rectification modulation
C Frequency modulation
D Amplitude modulation

key word: AMPLITUDE. The instantaneous voltage of an AC waveform. AM (Amplitude Modulation) impresses the message onto the RF carrier by varying its amplitude.

B-3-11-5 (A) In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?
A Amplitude modulation
B Frequency modulation
C Pulse modulation
D Frequency shift keying

key word: AMPLITUDE. The instantaneous voltage of an AC waveform. AM (Amplitude Modulation) impresses the message onto the RF carrier by varying its amplitude.

B-3-11-6 (D) Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:
A a series of key-clicks
B a continuous carrier
C a voice-modulated carrier
D an interrupted carrier

Telegraphy is equivalent to ‘on-off keying’ (an ‘interrupted carrier’). The Telegraph Key allows the operator to send bursts of RF energy to the antenna per the rhythm of his hand movement on the key. Key-Clicks is a type of interference where a CW signal generates unwanted sidebands.

B-3-11-7 (A) A mismatched antenna or transmission line may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be:
A full power will not be transferred to the antenna
B loss of modulation in the transmitted signal
C the driver stage will not deliver power to the final
D the output tank circuit breaks down

The ‘Final’ = the Power Amplifier. A serious impedance mismatch in the antenna system forces the Power Amplifier to operate in a load for which it was not designed. A significant mismatch causes high SWR (Standing Wave Ratio) which leads to voltage and current peaks which could damage the Power Amplifier.

B-3-11-8 (D) One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be:
A smaller DC current drain
B lower modulation percentage
C radiated key-clicks
D reduced antenna radiation

Impedance Match: maximum power transfer occurs when the impedance of the load matches the internal impedance of the source. A “slight mismatch” leads to reduced power being delivered to the antenna.

B-3-11-9 (A) An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not:
A drift in frequency
B become over modulated
C generate key-clicks
D cause undue distortion

key word: STABLE. Absence of frequency “drift”. A good oscillator remains on frequency despite mechanical vibrations, voltage or temperature variations.

B-3-11-10 (D) The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power?
A It has been used to provide greater efficiency
B It has been used to provide negative feedback
C It has been used to provide positive feedback
D It has been dissipated as heat loss

Power Amplifiers have a certain ‘efficiency’, the ratio of DC power required to obtain an RF output. The difference goes up in heat. This is the reason for the ‘heat sinks’ on the back of transmitters.

B-3-11-11 (C) The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier:
A is due to oscillating
B radiates from the antenna
C appears as heat dissipation
D is lost in the transmission line

Power Amplifiers have a certain ‘efficiency’, the ratio of DC power required to obtain an RF output. The difference goes up in heat. This is the reason for the ‘heat sinks’ on the back of transmitters.

B-3-12-1 (B) What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
A It may cause digital interference to computer equipment
B It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency
C It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band
D It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna

key words: MICROPHONE GAIN SET TOO HIGH. This leads to ‘overmodulation’ evidenced by distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) which interferes with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-12-2 (D) What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much speech processing?
A It may cause digital interference to computer equipment
B It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna
C It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band
D It may cause audio distortion or splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency

key words: TOO MUCH SPEECH PROCESSING. ‘Speech processing’ is raising the average amplitude of the audio input from the microphone closer to an acceptable peak value: i.e., make every passage of the spoken words equally loud. Too much speech processing leads to distortion and possibly driving the Linear Power Amplifier with too large a signal (overdriving). This leads to ‘overmodulation’ evidenced by distorted speech plus occupying excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) which interferes with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-12-3 (C) What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle, at the crest of the modulation envelope?
A Average radio-frequency power
B Peak transmitter power
C Peak envelope power
D Peak output power

key word: ENVELOPE. PEP — Peak Envelope Power ( a specification for SSB transmitters ): the average power at the output of a transmitter during one cycle at a modulation peak.

B-3-12-4 (B) What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?
A Between 3 and 6 kHz
B Between 2 and 3 kHz
C 1 kHz
D 2 kHz

By transposing the voice signal into the radio spectrum, the SSB transmitter manages to only use the approximate bandwidth of the original modulation ( speech frequencies important for communications span 300 hertz to 3000 hertz, a bandwidth of 2700 hertz ). SSB uses half the bandwidth of AM.

B-3-12-5 (A) In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer?
A Filter
B IF amplifier
C RF amplifier
D Carrier oscillator

The Balanced Modulator produces a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal. The Filter keeps one sideband. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-12-6 (D) What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband phone transmission?
A Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content
B Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal
D More power can be put into the sidebands for a given power amplifier capacity

Plain AM (Amplitude Modulation) produces a radio Carrier, an upper sideband and a lower sideband. The sidebands are the ever-changing sum and differences of the modulating frequency (follows voice) and the carrier frequency (set at the operating frequency). The carrier by itself does NOT convey information. The message is in the sidebands. Suppressing the carrier permits using the full capacity of the Power Amplifier for the sidebands. Note: Suppressing the carrier an one sideband yields Single Sideband.

B-3-12-7 (A) What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or double-sideband phone transmitter?
A It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
B It becomes stronger with no other effects
C It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response
D It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio

key word: OVERMODULATED. ‘Overmodulation’ results in distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-12-8 (B) How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A For a dip in plate current
B For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
C For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
D For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks

ALC — Automatic Level Control: a feedback circuit from the Linear Power Amplifier to an earlier amplifier stage which seeks to avoid overdriving the transmitter with too much audio. When the ALC acts, it is a corrective action. An infrequent ALC action on modulation peaks indicates that there is no overdriving. If the ALC needed to intervene constantly, this would indicate that the operator is trying to feed too much audio through the transmitter.

B-3-12-9 (C) The purpose of a balanced modulator in an SSB transmitter is to:
A ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant
B make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are in phase
C suppress the carrier and pass on the two sidebands
D make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180 degrees out of phase

The Balanced Modulator produces a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal. The Filter keeps one sideband. The SSB Transmitter block diagram: The Balanced Modulator takes in two signals: fixed frequency from an RF Oscillator and the microphone signal after it has passed through a Speech Amplifier. Out of the Balanced Modulator, a Filter selects the desired sideband. This SSB signal is mixed with a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) signal by a Mixer. Out of the Mixer, the SSB signal is now at the operating frequency and is taken through a LINEAR Power Amplifier.

B-3-12-10 (D) In a SSB transmission, the carrier is:
A transmitted with one sideband
B inserted at the transmitter
C of no use at the receiver
D reinserted at the receiver

In Amplitude Modulation, the position, along the radio spectrum, of a ‘side frequency’ within a sideband is the sum (or difference) of the modulating frequency and carrier frequency. The statement is also true with Single Sideband (SSB) where the carrier has been suppressed: the position of a ‘side frequency’ only has meaning in relation with the position of the phantom carrier. Suitable demodulation at the receiving end supposes that the “carrier is re-inserted” so that each side frequency (a great number of which form a sideband) can be rendered as an exact audio frequency.

B-3-12-11 (C) The automatic level control (ALC) in a SSB transmitter:
A increases the occupied bandwidth
B reduces the system noise
C controls the peak audio input so that the power amplifier is not overdriven
D reduces transmitter audio feedback

ALC — Automatic Level Control: a feedback circuit from the Linear Power Amplifier to an earlier amplifier stage which seeks to avoid overdriving the transmitter with too much audio. When the ALC acts, it is a corrective action. An infrequent ALC action on modulation peaks indicates that there is no overdriving. If the ALC needed to intervene constantly, this would indicate that the operator is trying to feed too much audio through the transmitter.

B-3-13-1 (A) What may happen if an FM transmitter is operated with the microphone gain or deviation control set too high?
A It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency
B It may cause digital interference to computer equipment
C It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna
D It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band

key words: MICROPHONE GAIN, DEVIATION TOO HIGH. ‘Overdeviation (FM)’ or ‘Overmodulation (AM, SSB)’ results in distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-13-2 (B) What may your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver do if you shout into its microphone and the deviation adjustment is set too high?
A It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band
B It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency
C It may cause digital interference to computer equipment
D It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna

key word: SHOUT. ‘Overdeviation (FM)’ or ‘Overmodulation (AM, SSB)’ results in distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-13-3 (A) What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver is overdeviating?
A Talk farther away from the microphone
B Talk louder into the microphone
C Let the transceiver cool off
D Change to a higher power level

key word: OVERDEVIATION. ‘Overdeviation (FM)’ or ‘Overmodulation (AM, SSB)’ results in distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-13-4 (B) What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?
A A phase-modulated carrier
B An unmodulated carrier
C A frequency-modulated carrier
D An amplitude-modulated carrier

The concept here is that IF NO AUDIO is fed in an FM transmitter, the carrier put out at the Power Amplifier has full amplitude anyway. A carrier which conveys no message is an ‘unmodulated carrier’.

B-3-13-5 (B) Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?
A Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes
B It provides good signal plus noise to noise ratio at low RF signal levels
C The carrier is not detectable
D It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals

FM — Frequency Modulation. As the process removes much of the ambient electrical noise, weak signals can be rendered with better ‘signal plus noise’ to ‘noise’ ratio. However, this comes at a price of more occupied bandwidth, 10 to 20 kilohertz in usual amateur communications.

B-3-13-6 (B) What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal for +/- 5kHz deviation?
A Greater than 20 kHz
B Between 10 and 20 kHz
C Less than 5 kHz
D Between 5 and 10 kHz

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-3-13-7 (B) What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?
A Poor carrier suppression
B Out-of-channel emissions
C Increased transmitter power
D Increased transmitter range

‘Overdeviation (FM)’ or ‘Overmodulation (AM, SSB)’ results in distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

B-3-13-8 (B) What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
A Pulse modulation
B Phase modulation
C Multiplex modulation
D Amplitude modulation

Direct FM: Use a variable reactance element as one of the elements of an oscillator to cause frequency deviation. Indirect FM: apply the modulating voltage to a variable reactance element connected to a tuned circuit later in the transmit chain, where it will produce phase modulation rather than frequency modulation.

B-3-13-9 (A) Why isn’t frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 28.0 MHz?
A The bandwidth would exceed limits in the Regulations
B The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
C Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
D The frequency stability would not be adequate

The usual bandwidth of FM with 5 kHz deviation on amateur bands is between 10 to 20 kilohertz. On the 10 metre band (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), maximum permitted bandwidth is 20 kHz. “Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below 29.50 MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below 29.50 MHz (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2).”

B-3-13-10 (D) You are transmitting FM on the 2 metre band. Several stations advise you that your transmission is loud and distorted. A quick check with a frequency counter tells you that the transmitter is on the proper frequency. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the distortion?
A The power supply output voltage is low
B The repeater is reversing your sidebands
C The frequency counter is giving an incorrect reading and you are indeed off frequency
D The frequency deviation of your transmitter is set too high

key word: DISTORTION. ‘Overdeviation (FM)’ or ‘Overmodulation (AM, SSB)’ results in distorted speech plus using excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

{L11} Propagation.

sunspots

B-7-5-1 (D) How do sunspots change the ionization of the atmosphere?
A The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization
B Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero
C They have no effect
D The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization

The number of sunspots visible on the surface of the Sun are related to overall solar activity. The higher the sunspot numbers, the higher the emission of Ultraviolet (UV) and particles. Ionization is directly influenced by the level of radiation.

there is no such thing as parabolic interaction.

B-7-4-10 (C) Polarization change often takes place on radio waves that are propagated over long distances. Which of these does not cause polarization change?
A Passage through magnetic fields (Faraday rotation)
B Refractions
C Parabolic interaction
D Reflections

key word: NOT. Refraction, reflection and magnetic fields all affect wave polarization as waves travel to and from the ionosphere.

phase distortion does not happen

B-7-4-11 (B) Reflection of a SSB transmission from the ionosphere causes:
A a high-pitch squeal at the receiver
B little or no phase-shift distortion
C phase-shift distortion
D signal cancellation at the receiver

Parts of a wave arriving with difference in phases (Selective Fading) cause a fluctuation in the perceived signal. Signals with large bandwidths are more susceptible to Selective Fading. SSB is less affected. [ “Selective fading: fading which affects unequally the different spectral components of a modulated radio wave” (IEC). ]

bandwidth is not affected by propagation

B-7-4-9 (D) How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?
A It is the same for both wide and narrow bandwidths
B Only the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect
C It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
D It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths

Parts of a wave arriving with difference in phases (Selective Fading) cause a fluctuation in the perceived signal. Signals with large bandwidths are more susceptible to Selective Fading. SSB is less affected. [ “Selective fading: fading which affects unequally the different spectral components of a modulated radio wave” (IEC). ]

fading

B-7-4-8 (C) What causes selective fading?
A Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
B Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise and sunset
C Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
D Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station

Parts of a wave arriving with difference in phases (Selective Fading) cause a fluctuation in the perceived signal. Signals with large bandwidths are more susceptible to Selective Fading. SSB is less affected. [ “Selective fading: fading which affects unequally the different spectral components of a modulated radio wave” (IEC). ]

B-7-4-4 (A) A change or variation in signal strength at the antenna, caused by differences in path lengths, is called:
A fading
B absorption
C fluctuation
D path loss

Parts of a wave arriving with difference in phases (Selective Fading) cause a fluctuation in the perceived signal. Signals with large bandwidths are more susceptible to Selective Fading. SSB is less affected. [ “Selective fading: fading which affects unequally the different spectral components of a modulated radio wave” (IEC). ]

B-7-4-3 (C) Two or more parts of the radio wave follow different paths during propagation and this may result in phase differences at the receiver. This “change” at the receiver is called:
A absorption
B skip
C fading
D baffling

Parts of a wave arriving with difference in phases (Selective Fading) cause a fluctuation in the perceived signal. Signals with large bandwidths are more susceptible to Selective Fading. SSB is less affected. [ “Selective fading: fading which affects unequally the different spectral components of a modulated radio wave” (IEC). ]

polarization

B-7-4-7 (B) On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization of the receiving antenna is very important in relation to the transmitting antenna, yet on HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is that so?
A Greater selectivity is possible with HF receivers making changes in polarization redundant
B The ionosphere can change the polarization of the signal from moment to moment
C The ground wave and the sky wave continually shift the polarization
D Anomalies in the Earth’s magnetic field produce a profound effect on HF polarization but not on VHF & UHF frequencies

As a radio wave travels through the changing layers of the ionosphere and is refracted back to Earth, wave polarization will have changed.

ionospheric “storms”

B-7-4-6 (D) The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to:
A produce extreme weather changes
B prevent communications by ground wave
C increase the maximum usable frequency
D cause a fade-out of sky-wave signals

Ionospheric Storm: exceptional solar activity where greater quantities of particles arrive from the Sun make for more ionization (too much ionization), absorption is increased and may last for days.

multipath

B-7-4-5 (D) When a transmitted radio signal reaches a station by a one-hop and two-hop skip path, small changes in the ionosphere can cause:
A consistent fading of received signal
B consistently stronger signals
C a change in the ground-wave signal
D variations in signal strength

This effect called ‘multipath’ (where copies of the same signal arrive with phase differences after travelling different path lengths) causes Rapid Fading.

D-region

B-7-4-2 (D) What causes distant AM broadcast and 160 metre ham band stations not to be heard during daytime hours??
A The presence of ionized clouds in the E region
B The splitting of the F region
C The weather below the ionosphere
D The ionization of the D region

The D layer, lowest of the layers, is fairly dense. Once ionized during daylight hours, it ABSORBS lower frequencies ( i.e., 160 m and 80 m ).

B-7-4-1 (B) What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower frequency HF signals in the daytime?
A It has little or no effect on 80-metre radio waves
B It absorbs the signals
C It bends the radio waves out into space
D It refracts the radio waves back to Earth

The D layer, lowest of the layers, is fairly dense. Once ionized during daylight hours, it ABSORBS lower frequencies ( i.e., 160 m and 80 m ).

B-7-2-9 (B) What is the main reason the 160, 80 and 40 metre amateur bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours?
A Because of a lack of activity
B Because of D-region absorption
C Because of auroral propagation
D Because of magnetic flux

The D layer, lowest of the layers, is fairly dense. Once ionized during daylight hours, it ABSORBS lower frequencies ( i.e., 160 m and 80 m ).

B-7-2-4 (D) Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long distance radio-wave propagation?
A The F2 region
B The F1 region
C The E region
D The D region

The D layer, lowest of the layers, is fairly dense. Once ionized during daylight hours, it ABSORBS lower frequencies ( i.e., 160 m and 80 m ).

B-7-2-3 (C) Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?
A The F region
B The A region
C The D region
D The E region

Above the troposphere and stratosphere, the layers of the ionosphere are: D, E, F1 and F2 (from lowest to highest).

skip distance

B-7-3-11 (D) If the height of the reflecting layer of the ionosphere increases, the skip distance of a high frequency (HF) transmission:
A stays the same
B varies regularly
C decreases
D becomes greater

How far one hop through the ionosphere reaches depends on the take-off angle of the wave with respect to ground ( the lower, the further ) AND the height of the layer where refraction takes place ( the higher, the further ). One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

B-7-3-10 (C) The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the:
A ionosphere is most densely ionized
B signal given out is strongest
C angle between the ground and the radiation is smallest
D polarization is vertical

How far one hop through the ionosphere reaches depends on the take-off angle of the wave with respect to ground ( the lower, the further ) AND the height of the layer where refraction takes place ( the higher, the further ). One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

B-7-3-9 (D) Skip distance is a term associated with signals from the ionosphere. Skip effects are due to:
A selective fading of local signals
B high gain antennas being used
C local cloud cover
D reflection and refraction from the ionosphere

The phenomenon which returns certain radio waves to Earth is primarily refraction.

B-7-3-8 (B) Skip distance is the:
A the maximum distance a signal will travel by both a ground wave and reflected wave
B the minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere
C the maximum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere
D the minimum distance reached by a ground-wave signal

Skip Distance is the “nearest point where the sky wave returns”.

B-7-3-7 (C) The distance from the transmitter to the nearest point where the sky wave returns to the Earth is called the:
A angle of radiation
B maximum usable frequency
C skip distance
D skip zone

Do not confuse Skip Distance and Skip Zone. Skip Distance is the “nearest point where the sky wave returns”. It marks the end of the Skip Zone which extended from beyond the reach of the Ground Wave to the “nearest point where the sky wave returns”.

B-7-3-6 (A) For radio signals, the skip distance is determined by the:
A height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation
B power fed to the power amplifier
C angle of radiation
D type of transmitting antenna used

How far one hop through the ionosphere reaches depends on the take-off angle of the wave with respect to ground ( the lower, the further ) AND the height of the layer where refraction takes place ( the higher, the further ). One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

multihop

B-7-3-5 (D) The distance to Europe from your location is approximately 5000 km. What sort of propagation is the most likely to be involved?
A Sporadic “E”
B Back scatter
C Tropospheric scatter
D Multihop

One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

skip zone

B-7-3-4 (B) Skip zone is:
A a zone between the antenna and the return of the first refracted wave
B a zone between the end of the ground wave and the point where the first refracted wave returns to Earth
C a zone of silence caused by lost sky waves
D a zone between any two refracted waves

The Skip Zone is a zone of silence beyond the reach of the Ground Wave but closer than the nearest point where the Sky Wave returns to Earth.

B-7-3-1 (A) What is a skip zone?
A An area which is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but too close for sky-wave propagation
B An area which is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave propagation
C An area covered by sky-wave propagation
D An area covered by ground-wave propagation

The Skip Zone is a zone of silence beyond the reach of the Ground Wave but closer than the nearest point where the Sky Wave returns to Earth.

distance

B-7-3-3 (A) What is the maximum distance along the Earth’s surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
A 2000 km (1250 miles)
B 300 km (190 miles)
C 4000 km (2500 miles)
D None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation

One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

B-7-3-2 (B) What is the maximum distance along the Earth’s surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A 300 km (190 miles)
B 4000 km (2500 miles)
C None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation
D 2000 km (1250 miles)

One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

F-layers

B-7-2-10 (D) During the day, one of the ionospheric layers splits into two parts called:
A D1 and D2
B E1 and E2
C A and B
D F1 and F2

The F1 and F2 layers present during the day combine at night to form the F layer. The other designations simply do not exist.

B-7-2-5 (A) What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime?
A F1 and F2
B Troposphere and stratosphere
C Electrostatic and electromagnetic
D D and E

key word: SU
B-REGIONS. The F1 and F2 layers present during the day combine at night to form the F layer. D and E are two distinct layers of their own.

B-7-2-8 (D) Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio-wave propagation?
A Because it exists only at night
B Because it is the lowest ionospheric region
C Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
D Because it is the highest ionospheric region

Above the troposphere and stratosphere, the layers of the ionosphere are: D, E, F1 and F2 (from lowest to highest).

E-layer

B-7-2-11 (D) The position of the E layer in the ionosphere is:
A below the D layer
B sporadic
C above the F layer
D below the F layer

From the Earth up and above the troposphere and stratosphere, the layers of the ionosphere are: D, E, F1 and F2.

B-7-7-1 (B) Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the 6 metre band?
A The D region
B The E region
C The F2 region
D The F1 region

At 50 to 54 MHz, the 6 m band normally escapes into space. However, ‘Sporadic E’ ( intense but temporary ionization of patches in the upper regions of the E layer ) can provide refraction paths for 6 metres.

when

B-7-2-7 (A) When is the ionosphere least ionized?
A Shortly before dawn
B Just after noon
C Just after dusk
D Shortly before midnight

key word: LEAST. At midday, with the Sun shining directly at the ionosphere, ionization is most intense. As the Sun sets and throughout the night, ions recombine (how quickly depending on the density of a given layer) so that ionization is minimum right before dawn (sunrise).

B-7-2-6 (D) When is the ionosphere most ionized?
A Dawn
B Midnight
C Dusk
D Midday

key word: MOST. At midday, with the Sun shining directly at the ionosphere, ionization is most intense. As the Sun sets and throughout the night, ions recombine (how quickly depending on the density of a given layer) so that ionization is minimum right before dawn (sunrise).

line-of-sight

B-7-1-4 (C) How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible horizon?
A By plane wave
B By geometric wave
C By direct wave
D By sky wave

key words: HORIZON. The two antennas “see” one another. ‘Line-of-sight’ is also known as ‘direct waves’ in contrast with ‘sky wave’.

B-7-1-1 (D) What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand-held VHF transceiver to another nearby?
A Tunnel propagation
B Skywave propagation
C Auroral propagation
D Line-of-sight propagation

key words: VHF, NEARBY. The two antennas “see” one another. ‘Line-of-sight’ is also known as ‘direct waves’ in contrast with ‘sky wave’.

ground waves

B-7-1-8 (A) The distance travelled by ground waves:
A is less at higher frequencies
B depends on the maximum usable frequency
C is more at higher frequencies
D is the same for all frequencies

“The actual mechanism is unique to longer wavelengths (ARRL Handbook)”. Ground Wave (about 200 km) is most apparent on 160 m and 80 m. “A special form of diffraction. Bending results when the lower part of the wave front loses energy due to currents induced in the ground (ARRL Handbook)”.

B-7-1-7 (D) At lower HF frequencies, radiocommunication out to 200 km, during daytime, is made possible by:
A troposphere
B skip wave
C ionosphere
D ground wave

“A ground wave is the result of a special form of diffraction that primarily affects longer-wavelength vertically polarized radio waves. It is most apparent in the 80 and 160 meter amateur bands, where practical ground-wave distances may extend beyond 200 km (120 mi). It is also the primary mechanism used by AM broadcast stations in the medium-wave bands. The term ground wave is often mistakenly applied to any short-distance communication, but the actual mechanism is unique to the longer-wave bands. (…) Ground wave is most useful during the day at 1.8 and 3.5 MHz, when D layer absorption makes sky wave propagation more difficult.” (ARRL Handbook 2012).

B-7-1-6 (B) That portion of the radiation which is directly affected by the surface of the Earth is called:
A inverted wave
B ground wave
C tropospheric wave
D ionospheric wave

key words: SURFACE OF THE EARTH. “A special form of diffraction. Bending results when the lower part of the wave front loses energy due to currents induced in the ground (ARRL Handbook)”. Ground Wave propagation present on long wavelengths (e.g., 160 m and 80 m) is of the order of 200 km.

ionization

B-7-2-1 (B) What causes the ionosphere to form?
A Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere
B Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere
C Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere
D Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation and particles emanating from the Sun break down molecules in the ionosphere to form charged ions.

B-7-2-2 (B) What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere?
A Thermal
B Ultraviolet
C Microwave
D Ionized particles

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation and particles emanating from the Sun break down molecules in the ionosphere to form charged ions.

B-7-5-3 (D) What is solar flux?
A A measure of the tilt of the Earth’s ionosphere on the side toward the sun
B The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth
C The density of the sun’s magnetic field
D The radio energy emitted by the sun

The Sun’s activity can be observed by visually counting sunspots but also by measuring noise at a microwave frequency. Sunspot numbers and solar flux are well co-related. The measurement of the solar flux is reported as a Solar Flux Index.

B-7-5-4 (B) What is the solar-flux index?
A A measure of solar activity that is taken annually
B A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency
C Another name for the American sunspot number
D A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months

The Sun’s activity can be observed by visually counting sunspots but also by measuring noise at a microwave frequency. Sunspot numbers and solar flux are well co-related. The measurement of the solar flux is reported as a Solar Flux Index.

B-7-5-5 (D) What influences all radiocommunication beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges?
A The F2 region of the ionosphere
B The F1 region of the ionosphere
C Lunar tidal effects
D Solar radiation

Because the Sun affects the ionosphere and the troposphere (e.g., temperature inversions), it can be said that it has an influence on all radiocommunications.

B-7-5-6 (A) Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?
A Electromagnetic and particle emissions
B Subaudible and audio-frequency emissions
C Polar region and equatorial emissions
D Infrared and gamma-ray emissions

Ultraviolet (UV) rays, a form of electromagnetic radiation, and particles [namely alpha and beta] are responsible for ionization in the ionosphere.

B-7-5-7 (B) When sunspot numbers are high, how is propagation affected?
A High frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B Frequencies up to 40 MHz or even higher become usable for long-distance communication
C High frequency radio signals are absorbed
D Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication

Maximum Usable Frequencies (MUF) in the range of 30 to 50 MHz become possible during solar cycle peaks. Stronger ionization allow upper layers of the ionosphere to refract higher frequencies rather than let them escape into space (as is the case during solar cycle lows).

B-7-5-8 (D) All communication frequencies throughout the spectrum are affected in varying degrees by the:
A ionosphere
B aurora borealis
C atmospheric conditions
D sun

Because the Sun affects the ionosphere and the troposphere (e.g., temperature inversions), it can be said that it has an influence on all radiocommunications.

B-7-5-10 (B) The ability of the ionosphere to reflect high frequency radio signals depends on:
A upper atmosphere weather conditions
B the amount of solar radiation
C the power of the transmitted signal
D the receiver sensitivity

Ionization makes refraction possible. Ultraviolet (UV) rays, a form of electromagnetic radiation, and particles [namely alpha and beta] are responsible for ionization in the ionosphere.

solar cycle, the sun

B-7-5-9 (B) Average duration of a solar cycle is:
A 1 year
B 11 years
C 3 years
D 6 years

key word: AVERAGE. The duration of the solar cycles varies from 7 to 17 years but the AVERAGE is 11 YEARS.

B-7-5-2 (C) How long is an average sunspot cycle?
A 5 years
B 7 years
C 11 years
D 17 years

key word: AVERAGE. The duration of the solar cycles varies from 7 to 17 years but the AVERAGE is 11 YEARS.

B-7-5-11 (B) HF radio propagation cycles have a period of approximately 11:
A centuries
B years
C months
D days

key word: 11. The duration of the solar cycles varies from 7 to 17 years but the AVERAGE is 11 YEARS.

sky waves or ionospheric waves

B-7-1-10 (B) Reception of high frequency (HF) radio waves beyond 4000 km is generally made possible by:
A surface wave
B ionospheric wave
C ground wave
D skip wave

One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

B-7-1-9 (B) The radio wave which follows a path from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to Earth is known correctly as the:
A skip wave
B ionospheric wave
C F layer
D surface wave

key word: IONOSPHERE. Sky Waves or ‘ionospheric waves’ rely on refraction in layers of the ionosphere.

B-7-1-5 (C) Skywave is another name for:
A ground wave
B inverted wave
C ionospheric wave
D tropospheric wave

Sky Waves or ‘ionospheric waves’ rely on refraction in layers of the ionosphere.

B-7-1-3 (C) When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this called?
A Ground-wave propagation
B Earth-Moon-Earth propagation
C Sky-wave propagation
D Tropospheric propagation

Sky Waves or ‘ionospheric waves’ rely on refraction in layers of the ionosphere.

B-7-1-2 (B) How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground-wave propagation?
A It depends on the weather
B It is much longer
C It is much shorter
D It is about the same

Ground Wave propagation present on long wavelengths (e.g., 160 m and 80 m) is of the order of 200 km. One hop via the E layer of the ionosphere can reach to 2000 km. One hop via the F2 layer can reach to 4000 km. Multiple hops cover greater distances.

critical frequency

B-7-6-1 (D) What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical frequency?
A They are absorbed by the ionosphere
B Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the maximum usable frequency
C They are reflected back to their source
D They pass through the ionosphere

The ‘Critical Frequency’ is a measurement of the highest frequency which will be refracted back to Earth when sent straight up at a given time. Above the Critical Frequency, the wave escapes into space. How high the Critical Frequency is, relates to the ionization level.

B-7-6-2 (B) What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A The type of weather just below the ionosphere
B The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly ultraviolet
C The temperature of the ionosphere
D The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere

The Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency usable for sky wave propagation between two points on the globe. MUF varies with ionization levels (solar cycle, time of the day). Maximum Usable Frequencies (MUF) in the range of 30 to 50 MHz become possible during solar cycle peaks.

B-7-6-3 (A) What does maximum usable frequency mean?
A The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination
B The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination
C The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere
D The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere

The Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency usable for sky wave propagation between two points on the globe. MUF varies with ionization levels (solar cycle, time of the day). Maximum Usable Frequencies (MUF) in the range of 30 to 50 MHz become possible during solar cycle peaks.

B-7-6-5 (B) What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28 MHz propagation between your station and western Europe?
A Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz
B Listen for signals from 10-metre beacon stations
C Listen for signals from 20-metre beacon stations
D Listen for signals from 39-metre broadcast stations

The 10 m band spans 28.0 MHz to 29.7 MHz. ‘Beacons’ are one-way automated stations maintained by amateurs which operate on known frequencies to permit evaluating propagation conditions.

B-7-6-6 (B) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
A They pass through the ionosphere
B They are bent back to the Earth
C They are changed to a frequency above the MUF
D They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

As Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency usable for sky wave propagation between two points on the globe, using lower frequencies are also refracted back to Earth. In fact, the Optimum Working Frequency is somewhat lower than the MUF [85%]. Note that frequencies below the MUF are more subject to absorption and noise so a lower limit does exist. Refraction of a given signal by the ionosphere is dependent on the frequency, the level of ionization and the angle of entry into a layer.

B-7-6-4 (B) What can be done at an amateur station to continue HF communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A Try a different frequency shift
B Try a higher frequency band
C Try the other sideband
D Try a different antenna polarization

A Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance is a sudden rise in radiation, due to solar flares, which increases D-layer ABSORPTION for an hour or so. The only option is to “try a higher frequency band” in an attempt to cut through the absorption.

B-7-6-8 (D) If we transmit a signal, the frequency of which is so high we no longer receive a reflection from the ionosphere, the signal frequency is above the:
A skip distance
B speed of light
C sunspot frequency
D maximum usable frequency

The Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency usable for sky wave propagation between two points on the globe. MUF varies with ionization levels (solar cycle, time of the day). Maximum Usable Frequencies (MUF) in the range of 30 to 50 MHz become possible during solar cycle peaks.

B-7-6-10 (D) The optimum working frequency provides the best long range HF communication. Compared with the maximum usable frequency (MUF), it is usually:
A double the MUF
B half the MUF
C slightly higher
D slightly lower

As Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency usable for sky wave propagation between two points on the globe, using lower frequencies are also refracted back to Earth. In fact the Optimum Working Frequency is somewhat lower than the MUF [85%]. Note that frequencies below the MUF are more subject to absorption and noise so a lower limit does exist. Refraction of a given signal by the ionosphere is dependent on the frequency, the level of ionization and the angle of entry into a layer.

solar cycle

B-7-6-7 (C) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-metre band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B At the summer solstice
C At any point in the solar cycle
D Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle

During solar peaks and solar lows, the 20 m band (14.0 MHz to 14.35 MHz) usually support worldwide communications during the day.

seasonality

B-7-6-9 (B) Communication on the 80 metre band is generally most difficult during:
A daytime in winter
B daytime in summer
C evening in winter
D evening in summer

During the summer, two problems can affect 160 m and 80 m: static from lightning (thunderstorms) and D-layer absorption. The D layer, lowest of the layers, is fairly dense. Once ionized during daylight hours, it ABSORBS lower frequencies ( i.e., 160 m and 80 m ).

B-7-6-11 (A) During summer daytime, which bands are the most difficult for communications beyond ground wave?
A 160 and 80 metres
B 40 metres
C 30 metres
D 20 metres

During the summer, two problems can affect 160 m and 80 m: static from lightning (thunderstorms) and D-layer absorption. The D layer, lowest of the layers, is fairly dense. Once ionized during daylight hours, it ABSORBS lower frequencies ( i.e., 160 m and 80 m ).

tropo-ducting

B-7-7-2 (A) What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-metre radio waves?
A It lets you contact stations farther away
B It causes them to travel shorter distances
C It garbles the signal
D It reverses the sideband of the signal

key word: BENDING. Tropospheric bending : refraction occurs when a wave travels through masses of differing densities (humidity content) in the troposphere. The wave travels further rather than escape right away into space.

B-7-7-3 (A) What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
A A temperature inversion
B Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations
C An aurora to the north
D A very low pressure area

key word: DUCTING. Wave gets caught between sandwiched masses of different humidity contents (like in a waveguide). A ‘temperature inversion’, where hot air masses find themselves riding over cooler air, lead to conditions supporting ‘Ducting’. Except for ‘Tropo Ducting’, common troposcatter (scattering through the troposphere) opens VHF paths out to 500 km for well-equipped stations (800 at the most). ‘Tropospheric Ducting’ permit distances beyond 800 km.

B-7-7-4 (A) That portion of the radiation kept close to the Earth’s surface due to bending in the atmosphere is called the:
A tropospheric wave
B inverted wave
C ground wave
D ionospheric wave

key word: BENDING. Tropospheric bending : refraction occurs when a wave travels through masses of differing densities (humidity content) in the troposphere. The wave travels further rather than escape right away into space.

B-7-7-10 (B) Excluding enhanced propagation modes, what is the approximate range of normal VHF tropospheric propagation?
A 1600 km (1000 miles)
B 800 km (500 miles)
C 2400 km (1500 miles)
D 3200 km (2000 miles)

Except for ‘Tropo Ducting’, common troposcatter (scattering through the troposphere) opens VHF paths out to 500 km for well-equipped stations (800 at the most). ‘Tropospheric Ducting’ (where a wave gets caught between sandwiched air masses during a ‘temperature inversion’) permit distances beyond 800 km.

B-7-7-11 (D) What effect is responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 800 km (500 miles)?
A Faraday rotation
B D-region absorption
C Moon bounce (EME) Earth - Moon - Earth
D Tropospheric ducting

Except for ‘Tropo Ducting’, common troposcatter (scattering through the troposphere) opens VHF paths out to 500 km for well-equipped stations (800 at the most). ‘Tropospheric Ducting’ (where a wave gets caught between sandwiched air masses during a ‘temperature inversion’) permit distances beyond 800 km.

sporadic E

B-7-7-5 (B) What is a sporadic-E condition?
A A brief decrease in VHF signals caused by sunspot variations
B Patches of dense ionization at E-region height
C Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height
D Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations

At 50 to 54 MHz, the 6 m band normally escapes into space. However, ‘Sporadic E’ ( intense but temporary ionization of patches in the upper regions of the E layer ) can provide refraction paths for 6 metres.

B-7-7-6 (C) On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed?
A 20 metres
B 2 metres
C 6 metres
D 160 metres

At 50 to 54 MHz, the 6 m band normally escapes into space. However, ‘Sporadic E’ ( intense but temporary ionization of patches in the upper regions of the E layer ) can provide refraction paths for 6 metres.

auroral propagation

B-7-7-7 (B) In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
A South
B North
C East
D West

key word: AURORA. The arrival of high-energy particles from the Sun (e.g., after a solar flare) disturbs the Earth’s magnetic field (a geomagnetic storm). The resulting unusual ionization of gases in the E layer above the poles produce the visual display known as ‘aurora’ (“Northern Lights”). Pointing antennas at the aurora front permit oblique paths to distant stations.

B-7-7-8 (A) Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
A At E-region height
B At F-region height
C In the equatorial band
D At D-region height

key word: AURORA. The arrival of high-energy particles from the Sun (e.g., after a solar flare) disturbs the Earth’s magnetic field (a geomagnetic storm). The resulting unusual ionization of gases in the E layer above the poles produce the visual display known as ‘aurora’ (“Northern Lights”). Pointing antennas at the aurora front permit oblique paths to distant stations.

B-7-7-9 (C) Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation?
A FM
B SSB
C CW
D RTTY

The unstable front of the aurora and ensuing scattering of the radio wave make for distorted signals, only the smaller bandwidth signals are usable.

scatter-mode

B-7-8-1 (C) What kind of unusual HF propagation allows weak signals from the skip zone to be heard occasionally?
A Ducting
B Ground-wave
C Scatter-mode
D Sky-wave with low radiation angle

Key words: UNUSUAL, WEAK. “Beyond Ground Wave and too close for normal Sky Wave” is the ‘Skip Zone’, a zone of silence. Out of the choices presented, the only explanation for propagation into the Skip Zone is HF SCATTER. The signals will be weak and distorted.

B-7-8-2 (C) If you receive a weak, distorted signal from a distance, and close to the maximum usable frequency, what type of propagation is probably occurring?
A Line-of-sight
B Ducting
C Scatter
D Ground-wave

key words: WEAK, DISTORTED. Signals propagated via ‘HF Scatter’ have a characteristic weak and distorted (hollow, echo-like) sound. The distortion is caused by multi-path effects. Unlike simple refraction, where the entire signal changes direction, scattering splits the signal in many directions (thus explaining the weakness).

B-7-8-3 (C) What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A Reversed sidebands
B High intelligibility
C Rapid flutter or hollow sounding distortion
D Reversed modulation

key words: FLUTTER, HOLLOW. Signals propagated via ‘HF Scatter’ have a characteristic weak and distorted (hollow, echo-like) sound. The distortion is caused by multi-path effects. Unlike simple refraction, where the entire signal changes direction, scattering splits the signal in many directions (thus explaining the weakness).

B-7-8-4 (B) What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A The state of the E-region at the point of refraction
B Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave paths
C Auroral activity and changes in the Earth’s magnetic field
D Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal

key words: SCATTER, DISTORTED. Signals propagated via ‘HF Scatter’ have a characteristic weak and distorted (hollow, echo-like) sound. The distortion is caused by multi-path effects. Unlike simple refraction, where the entire signal changes direction, scattering splits the signal in many directions (thus explaining the weakness).

B-7-8-5 (C) Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
A The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy
B Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy
C Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
D Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy

key words: SCATTER, WEAK. Signals propagated via ‘HF Scatter’ have a characteristic weak and distorted (hollow, echo-like) sound. The distortion is caused by multi-path effects. Unlike simple refraction, where the entire signal changes direction, scattering splits the signal in many directions (thus explaining the weakness).

B-7-8-6 (C) What type of propagation may allow a weak signal to be heard at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A Sporadic-E skip
B Ground wave
C Scatter
D Short-path skip

“Beyond Ground Wave and too close for normal Sky Wave” is the ‘Skip Zone’, a zone of silence. Out of the choices provided, the only explanation for propagation into the Skip Zone is HF SCATTER.

B-7-8-7 (D) On the HF bands, when is scatter propagation most likely involved?
A When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high
B At night
C When the F1 and F2 regions are combined
D When weak and distorted signals near or above the maximum usable frequency for normal propagation can be heard over unusual paths

Key words: WEAK, DISTORTED, UNUSUAL PATHS. “Special forms of F layer scattering can create unusual paths within the skip zone. Backscatter and sidescatter signals are usually observed just below the MUF for the direct path and allow communications not normally possible by other means. (…) Backscattered signals are generally weak and have a characteristic hollow sound.” (ARRL Handbook 2012)

B-7-8-8 (D) Which of the following is not a scatter mode?
A Meteor scatter
B Tropospheric scatter
C Ionospheric scatter
D Absorption scatter

Key words: IS NOT. Meteor Scatter (bouncing signals off the ionized trails left by meteors), Troposcatter (scattering by layers of varying humidity content in the lower atmosphere) and Ionospheric Scatter (through irregularities, turbulence or stratification in the ionospheric layers) are all known scatter modes.

B-7-8-9 (C) Meteor scatter is most effective on what band?
A 15 metres
B 160 metres
C 6 metres
D 40 metres

30 MHz to 100 MHz is the range where ‘Meteor Scatter’ is most effective. This makes the 6 m amateur band (50 MHz to 54 MHz) the band of choice for Meteor Scatter.

B-7-8-10 (B) Which of the following is not a scatter mode?
A Forward scatter
B Inverted scatter
C Side scatter
D Back scatter

key word: NOT. Scattering has to do with dispersing in many DIRECTIONS. ‘Side Scatter’, ‘Back Scatter’ and ‘ Forward Scatter’ are valid paths.

B-7-8-11 (D) In which frequency range is meteor scatter most effective for extended-range communication?
A 10 - 30 MHz
B 3 - 10 MHz
C 100 - 300 MHz
D 30 - 100 MHz

30 MHz to 100 MHz is the range where ‘Meteor Scatter’ is most effective. This makes the 6 m amateur band (50 MHz to 54 MHz) the band of choice for Meteor Scatter.

{L12} Receivers.

FM receivers (10 questions)

B-3-3-1 (C) In a frequency modulation receiver, the __is connected to the input of the radio frequency amplifier.
A frequency discriminator
B limiter
C antenna
D mixer

Key words: “CONNECTED TO THE INPUT”. In a receiver, an RF amplifier is generally used to amplify the tiny signal (i.e., microvolts) arriving from the Antenna. Once amplified, the incoming signal is fed to the Mixer.

B-3-3-2 (D) In a frequency modulation receiver, the __ is in between the antenna and the mixer.
A audio frequency amplifier
B local oscillator
C intermediate frequency amplifier
D radio frequency amplifier

In a receiver, an RF amplifier is generally used to amplify the tiny signal (i.e., microvolts) arriving from the Antenna. Once amplified, the incoming signal is fed to the Mixer.

B-3-3-3 (C) In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the local oscillator is fed to the:
A limiter
B antenna
C mixer
D radio frequency amplifier

The Mixer in a receiver takes in the incoming signal and mixes it with a local oscillator to transpose (usually down) the incoming signal to a fixed Intermediate Frequency (the Superheterodyne concept). Using a fixed and lower Intermediate Frequency regardless of operating frequency facilitates the achievement of high gain and selectivity.

B-3-3-4 (A) In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the __is connected to the mixer.
A local oscillator
B frequency discriminator
C intermediate frequency amplifier
D speaker or headphones

The Mixer in a receiver takes in the incoming signal and mixes it with a local oscillator to transpose (usually down) the incoming signal to a fixed Intermediate Frequency (the Superheterodyne concept). Using a fixed and lower Intermediate Frequency regardless of operating frequency facilitates the achievement of high gain and selectivity.

B-3-3-5 (D) In a frequency modulation receiver, the_ is in between the mixer and the intermediate frequency amplifier.
A limiter
B frequency discriminator
C radio frequency amplifier
D filter

The Mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-3-6 (D) In a frequency modulation receiver, the __ is located between the filter and the limiter.
A local oscillator
B mixer
C radio frequency amplifier
D intermediate frequency amplifier

The Mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-3-7 (A) In a frequency modulation receiver, the__ is in between the intermediate frequency amplifier and the frequency discriminator.
A limiter
B filter
C local oscillator
D radio frequency amplifier

Detection (recovery of the original message) in a Frequency Modulation receiver is performed by the ‘Discriminator’. The Discriminator translates frequency deviation back to audio. Early discriminators were sensitive to amplitude variations and needed to be preceded by a ‘Limiter’ to remove amplitude variations from the received signal. Limiters are integral part of an FM system as they cut down the influence of noise.

B-3-3-8 (A) In a frequency modulation receiver, the __ is located between the limiter and the audio frequency amplifier.
A frequency discriminator
B intermediate frequency amplifier
C speaker or headphones
D local oscillator

Detection (recovery of the original message) in a Frequency Modulation receiver is performed by the ‘Discriminator’. The Discriminator translates frequency deviation back to audio. Early discriminators were sensitive to amplitude variations and needed to be preceded by a ‘Limiter’ to remove amplitude variations from the received signal. Limiters are integral part of an FM system as they cut down the influence of noise.

B-3-3-9 (C) In a frequency modulation receiver, the _ is located between the speaker or headphones and the frequency discriminator.
A intermediate frequency amplifier
B radio frequency amplifier
C audio frequency amplifier
D limiter

Most receivers rely on an Audio Amplifier to provide sufficient volume from the loudspeaker.

B-3-3-10 (B) In a frequency modulation receiver, the __ connects to the audio frequency amplifier output.
A limiter
B speaker or headphones
C intermediate frequency amplifier
D frequency discriminator

key words: “CONNECTS TO”. The expected answer relies on the general concept of connecting something to a source: a hose to a tap, a house to the electrical grid or gas mains. In that sense, the loudspeaker CONNECTS to the Audio Amplifier. The Audio Amplifier connects to the Discriminator.

SSB/CW receiver (9 questions)

B-3-5-1 (A) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the antenna is connected to the __ .
A radio frequency amplifier
B product detector
C local oscillator
D intermediate frequency amplifier

In a receiver, an RF amplifier is generally used to amplify the tiny signal (i.e., microvolts) arriving from the Antenna. Once amplified, the incoming signal is fed to the Mixer.

B-3-5-2 (B) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _ is connected to the mixer.
A audio frequency amplifier
B radio frequency amplifier
C filter
D intermediate frequency amplifier

The mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-5-3 (D) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __ is connected to the radio frequency amplifier and the local oscillator.
A beat frequency oscillator
B product detector
C filter
D mixer

The mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-5-4 (B) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _ is connected to the mixer.
A product detector
B local oscillator
C intermediate frequency amplifier
D beat frequency oscillator

The mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-5-5 (A) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _ is in between the mixer and intermediate frequency amplifier.
A filter
B radio frequency amplifier
C beat frequency oscillator
D product detector

The mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-5-6 (A) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __ is in between the filter and product detector.
A intermediate frequency amplifier
B audio frequency amplifier
C beat frequency oscillator
D radio frequency amplifier

The mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier.

B-3-5-7 (C) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __ output is connected to the audio frequency amplifier.
A beat frequency oscillator
B intermediate frequency amplifier
C product detector
D local oscillator

In an SSB/CW receiver, detection (recovery of the message) is performed by a ‘Product Detector’. The ‘Product Detector’ mixes the Intermediate Frequency signal with a Beat Frequency Oscillator to transpose the IF signal down to the audible range. The demodulated signal is applied to an Audio Amplifier to provide sufficient drive for the loudspeaker.

B-3-5-8 (C) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _ is connected to the product detector.
A radio frequency amplifier
B audio frequency amplifier
C beat frequency oscillator
D mixer

In an SSB/CW receiver, detection (recovery of the message) is performed by a ‘Product Detector’. The ‘Product Detector’ mixes the Intermediate Frequency signal with a Beat Frequency Oscillator to transpose the IF signal down to the audible range. The demodulated signal is applied to an Audio Amplifier to provide sufficient drive for the loudspeaker.

B-3-5-9 (C) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __ is connected to the output of the product detector.
A local oscillator
B radio frequency amplifier
C audio frequency amplifier
D intermediate frequency amplifier

In an SSB/CW receiver, detection (recovery of the message) is performed by a ‘Product Detector’. The ‘Product Detector’ mixes the Intermediate Frequency signal with a Beat Frequency Oscillator to transpose the IF signal down to the audible range. The demodulated signal is applied to an Audio Amplifier to provide sufficient drive for the loudspeaker.

B-3-5-10 (C) In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __ is connected to the output of the audio frequency amplifier.
A radio frequency amplifier
B beat frequency oscillator
C speaker or headphones
D mixer

In an SSB/CW receiver, detection (recovery of the message) is performed by a ‘Product Detector’. The ‘Product Detector’ mixes the Intermediate Frequency signal with a Beat Frequency Oscillator to transpose the IF signal down to the audible range. The demodulated signal is applied to an Audio Amplifier to provide sufficient drive for the loudspeaker.

bandwidth of various modes (3 questions)

B-3-10-1 (C) Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?
A CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
B RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
C CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
D CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-3-10-9 (C) A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz, and 6 kHz. If you were listening to single sideband, which filter would you utilize?
A 6 kHz
B 500 Hz
C 2.4 kHz
D 250 Hz

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz. A 2.4 kHz filter is just wide enough to accept an SSB signal. Wider a filter, lets in more noise. Too narrow a filter causes distortion.

B-3-10-10 (C) A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz and 6 kHz. You are copying a CW transmission and there is a great deal of interference. Which one of the filters would you choose?
A 2.4 kHz
B 6 kHz
C 250 Hz
D 500 Hz

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz. A 250 Hz filter is best to isolate a CW signal. Wider a filter, lets in more noise. Too narrow a filter causes distortion.

sensistivity, selectivity, stability (4 questions)

B-3-10-2 (D) The figure in a receiver’s specifications which indicates its sensitivity is the:
A audio output in watts
B bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz
C number of RF amplifiers
D RF input signal needed to achieve a given signal plus noise to noise ratio

A measurement of the ‘Signal + Noise’ to ‘Noise’ ratio shows how well an incoming signal overcomes the inherent internal noise of a receiver. A sensitive receiver will render more signal and little remaining noise (less background noise on the reproduced signal) when compared to the base noise in the receiver. Measuring how strong a signal is required to produce a given ‘S+N/N’ ratio permits comparing receiver sensitivities.

B-3-10-3 (D) If two receivers of different sensitivity are compared, the less sensitive receiver will produce:
A a steady oscillator drift
B more than one signal
C more signal or less noise
D less signal or more noise

key words: LESS SENSITIVE. A sensitive receiver will render more signal and little remaining noise (less background noise on the reproduced signal) when compared to the base noise in the receiver. The better receiver can render weak signals with little noise.

B-3-10-8 (D) The three main parameters against which the quality of a receiver is measured are:
A selectivity, stability and frequency range
B sensitivity, stability and cross-modulation
C sensitivity, selectivity and image rejection
D sensitivity, selectivity and stability

Three times letter S: Sensitivity, Selectivity and Stability. Sensitivity: render weak signals with less noise. Selectivity: the ability to separate signals from adjacent ones. Stability: staying on frequency over time despite temperature or voltage variations.

B-3-10-11 (C) Selectivity can be placed in the audio stages of a receiver by the utilization of RC active or passive audio filters. If you were to copy CW, which of the following bandpasses would you choose?
A 300 - 2700 Hz
B 100 - 1100 Hz
C 750 - 850 Hz
D 2100 - 2300 Hz

key words: AUDIO STAGES. After the ‘Product Detector’, an incoming CW signal is now an audible tone. Most receivers render CW as a note somewhere in the range of 750 Hz to 850 Hz. Additional band-pass filtering (allowing only a certain range of frequencies) can be useful to knock down adjacent stations finding their way into the receiver passband (the range of frequencies allowed though the Intermediate Frequency chain) and producing higher or lower notes, say at 250 or 1000 Hz.

details of ssb (3 questions)

B-3-10-4 (A) Which of the following modes of transmission is usually detected with a product detector?
A Single sideband suppressed carrier
B Double sideband full carrier
C Frequency modulation
D Pulse modulation

In SSB, the FREQUENCY of the original modulating signal is conveyed by the POSITION of each side frequency within the sideband in relation to the phantom carrier (it has been suppressed). A sideband (a group of ever changing side frequencies) is formed by the sum (Upper Sideband) or difference (Lower Sideband) of the modulating frequencies and the carrier frequency. The original frequency can only be reproduced correctly by “re-inserting” a reference signal, the Beat Frequency Oscillator, and mixing it with the received signal. ‘Beat’ is synonym of mixing.

B-3-10-5 (D) A receiver designed for SSB reception must have a BFO (beat frequency oscillator) because:
A it beats with the received carrier to produce the other sideband
B it reduces the passband of the IF stages
C it phases out the unwanted sideband signal
D the suppressed carrier must be replaced for detection

In SSB, the FREQUENCY of the original modulating signal is conveyed by the POSITION of each side frequency within the sideband in relation to the phantom carrier (it has been suppressed). A sideband (a group of ever changing side frequencies) is formed by the sum (Upper Sideband) or difference (Lower Sideband) of the modulating frequencies and the carrier frequency. The original frequency can only be reproduced correctly by “re-inserting” a reference signal, the Beat Frequency Oscillator, and mixing it with the received signal. ‘Beat’ is synonym of mixing.

B-3-10-7 (C) What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A An all pass filter
B A pi-network filter
C A notch filter
D A band pass filter

The problem presented here is an offending signal within the receiver passband (the range of frequencies allowed though the Intermediate Frequency chain). A ‘Notch Filter’ which attenuates a very narrow range of frequencies can be used to remove the interfering carrier.

mixing (1 question)

B-3-10-6 (C) A receiver receives an incoming signal of 3.54 MHz, and the local oscillator produces a signal of 3.995 MHz. To which frequency should the IF be tuned?
A 3.995 MHz
B 3.54 MHz
C 455 kHz
D 7.435 MHz

The mixer accepts two inputs: the incoming signal and the local oscillator. Mixing returns two new products: the sum of the two inputs, the difference of the two inputs. The IF Filter seeks to let only one of the products into the Intermediate Frequency chain for amplification through the IF Amplifier. In this example, 3995 kHz minus 3540 kHz yields 455 kHz.

fm capture (1 questions)

B-3-13-11 (B) FM receivers perform in an unusual manner when two or more stations are present. The strongest signal, even though it is only two or three times stronger than the other signals, will be the only transmission demodulated. This is called:
A surrender effect
B capture effect
C attach effect
D interference effect

The ‘Capture Effect’ is specific to FM receivers: only the stronger of two signals at or near the same frequency will be demodulated. The complete suppression of the weaker signal occurs at the receiver limiter. When both signals are nearly equal in strength, or are fading independently, the receiver may switch from one to the other. http://en.wikipedia.org/

{L13} Interference and Suppression.

overload (7 questions)

B-8-1-1 (A) What is meant by receiver overload?
A Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby transmitter
B Interference caused by turning the volume up too high
C Too much current from the power supply
D Too much voltage from the power supply

‘Receiver Overload’, also known as ‘Front-End Overload’ or ‘RF Overload’, is a problem where the early stages of a receiver (i.e., RF amplifier or Mixer) are overwhelmed by some strong nearby transmitter. For example, TV reception is affected by an HF transmitter. In the case of ‘Overload’, the exact transmit frequency does not seem to matter: the effect is the same for a broad range of transmit frequencies. This contrasts with ‘Harmonics’ where a multiple of a given transmit frequency is the cause of the interference.

B-8-1-2 (B) What is one way to tell if radio frequency interference to a receiver is caused by front-end overload?
A If connecting a low pass filter to the transmitter greatly cuts down the interference
B If the interference is about the same no matter what frequency is used for the transmitter
C If grounding the receiver makes the problem worse
D If connecting a low pass filter to the receiver greatly cuts down the interference

‘Receiver Overload’, also known as ‘Front-End Overload’ or ‘RF Overload’, is a problem where the early stages of a receiver (i.e., RF amplifier or Mixer) are overwhelmed by some strong nearby transmitter. For example, TV reception is affected by an HF transmitter. In the case of ‘Overload’, the exact transmit frequency does not seem to matter: the effect is the same for a broad range of transmit frequencies. This contrasts with ‘Harmonics’ where a multiple of a given transmit frequency is the cause of the interference.

B-8-1-3 (A) If a neighbour reports television interference whenever you transmit, no matter what band you use, what is probably the cause of the interference?
A Receiver overload
B Incorrect antenna length
C Receiver VR tube discharge
D Too little transmitter harmonic suppression

‘Receiver Overload’, also known as ‘Front-End Overload’ or ‘RF Overload’, is a problem where the early stages of a receiver (i.e., RF amplifier or Mixer) are overwhelmed by some strong nearby transmitter. For example, TV reception is affected by an HF transmitter. In the case of ‘Overload’, the exact transmit frequency does not seem to matter: the effect is the same for a broad range of transmit frequencies. This contrasts with ‘Harmonics’ where a multiple of a given transmit frequency is the cause of the interference.

B-8-1-4 (A) What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?
A High-pass
B Low-pass
C Band-pass
D No filter

key words: TV, OVERLOAD, HF. TV Channels begin at 54 MHz; the HF range ends at 30 MHz. To prevent overload to a TV receiver from an HF transmitter, a HIGH-PASS filter can be installed on the TV receiver to allow higher frequencies through while attenuating lower frequencies. The object of the filtering being to keep the HF signals out of the TV receiver.

B-8-1-5 (C) During a club ARRL Field Day outing, reception on the 20 m SSB station is compromised every time the 20 m CW station is on the air. What might cause such interference?
A Improper station grounding
B Harmonic radiation
C Receiver desensitization
D Both stations are fed from the same generator

The proximity of a transmitter a short distance from a receiver, especially on the same band, may cause receiver overload. Symptoms can be loss of receiver sensitivity (desensitization) or weird noises.

B-8-1-9 (A) Two mobile stations are traveling along the same road in close proximity to each other and having trouble communicating through a local repeater. Why may it be necessary to use simplex operation to communicate between these cars?
A The strong signal of one mobile transmitter may desensitize the receiver of the other mobile receiver
B Simplex operation does not require the use of CTCSS tones
C There is less time delay using simplex operation compared to using a repeater
D There are many more simplex frequencies than repeater frequencies available

The proximity of a transmitter a short distance from a receiver, especially on the same band, may cause receiver overload. Symptoms can be loss of receiver sensitivity (desensitization) or weird noises.

B-8-2-6 (B) An amateur transmitter is being heard across the entire dial of a broadcast receiver. The receiver is most probably suffering from:
A splatter from the transmitter
B audio rectification in the receiver
C harmonics interference from the transmitter
D poor image rejection

key words: ACROSS THE DIAL. This has to be a case of OVERLOAD. ‘Cross-Modulation’ and ‘Audio Rectification’ are two manifestations of overload. All other choices would not appear ‘across the dial’: an ‘Harmonic’ falls on a precise frequency, ‘Splatter’ is limited to a few kilohertz.

intermodulation (5 questions)

B-8-1-6 (C) Intermodulation in a broadcast receiver by a nearby transmitter would be noticed in the receiver as:
A distortion on transmitted voice peaks
B interference continuously across the dial
C the undesired signal in the background of the desired signal
D interference only when a broadcast signal is tuned

key words: IN THE BACKGROUND. In 2014, Industry Canada chose to replace the word “cross-modulation” with “intermodulation”. ‘Cross-Modulation’ is a special case of overload: it too supposes a strong undesired signal. The peculiarity of ‘Cross-Modulation’ is that the two signals are heard at the same time: the one you want AND the undesired interfering signal.

B-8-1-7 (B) You have connected your hand-held VHF transceiver to an outside gain antenna. You now hear a mixture of signals together with different modulation on your desired frequency. What is the nature of this interference?
A Audio stage intermodulation interference
B Receiver intermodulation interference
C Harmonic interference from other stations
D Audio stage overload interference

“Intermod” for short, a plague in urban environments. High-powered transmitters used for commercial purposes multiply the possibilities that two or more signals mix and produce a result (product) which OVERLOADS your receiver. The actual mixing may occur in your receiver, in which case filtering might be helpful, or elsewhere altogether. The results: loss of sensitivity, noises and squeals covering the intended signal in your receiver.

B-8-1-8 (B) Two or more strong out-of-band signals mix in your receiver to produce interference on a desired frequency. What is this called?
A Front-end desensitization
B Intermodulation interference
C Receiver quieting
D Capture effect

“Intermod” for short, a plague in urban environments. High-powered transmitters used for commercial purposes multiply the possibilities that two or more signals mix and produce a result (product) which OVERLOADS your receiver. The actual mixing may occur in your receiver, in which case filtering might be helpful, or elsewhere altogether. The results: loss of sensitivity, noises and squeals covering the intended signal in your receiver.

B-8-1-10 (D) A television receiver suffers interference on channel 5 (76 - 82 MHz) only when you transmit on 14 MHz. From your home you see the tower of a commercial FM station known to broadcast on 92.5 MHz. Which of these solutions would you try first?
A Insert a low pass filter at the antenna connector of the HF transmitter
B Insert a high pass filter at the antenna connector of the HF transmitter
C Insert a low pass filter at the antenna connector of the television
D Insert a high pass filter at the antenna connector of the television

‘Cross-Modulation’ is a special case of overload. TV Channels begin at 54 MHz; the HF range ends at 30 MHz. To prevent overload to a TV receiver from an HF transmitter, a HIGH-PASS filter can be installed on the TV receiver to allow higher frequencies through while attenuating lower frequencies. The object of the filtering being to keep the HF signals out of the TV receiver.

B-8-1-11 (B) How can intermodulation be reduced?
A By adjusting the passband tuning
B By installing a suitable filter at the receiver
C By using a better antenna
D By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gain

TV Channels begin at 54 MHz; the HF range ends at 30 MHz. To prevent overload to a TV receiver from an HF transmitter, a HIGH-PASS filter can be installed on the TV receiver to allow higher frequencies through while attenuating lower frequencies. The object of the filtering being to keep the HF signals out of the TV receiver.

audio rectification (6 questions)

B-8-2-1 (B) What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate audio frequency interference to home entertainment systems?
A Bypass inductors
B Coils on ferrite cores
C Bypass resistors
D Metal-oxide varistors

A frequent cause of interference to home entertainment systems is that the long speaker leads act as antennas and bring radio energy into the audio amplifier stages, audio rectification ensues. Keeping the RF out of the audio circuitry can be achieved by winding the speaker leads on ferrite cores to form a choke (high inductive reactance at RF).

B-8-2-2 (B) What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?
A Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
B Install a modular plug-in telephone RFI filter close to the telephone device
C Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier
D Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use

“RFI Filter” = Radio Frequency Interference filter. Much like home entertainment systems with their long speaker leads acting as antennas, wire-line telephones with cabling running through the house and streets can easily pickup RF energy. Filters installed at the telephone set usually solve the problem.

B-8-2-3 (B) What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs?
A A steady hum whenever the transmitter’s carrier is on the air
B Distorted speech from the transmitter’s signals
C Clearly audible speech from the transmitter’s signals
D On-and-off humming or clicking

Much like home entertainment systems, the long speaker leads in a Public-Address sound system act as antennas and bring radio energy into the audio amplifier stages. Interfering SSB signals are heard as distorted speech in the sound system. Interfering CW signals are heard as on-and-off clicks or hum.

B-8-2-4 (B) What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?
A A steady whistling
B On-and-off humming or clicking
C Audible, possibly distorted speech
D Muffled, severely distorted speech

Much like home entertainment systems, the long speaker leads in a Public-Address sound system act as antennas and bring radio energy into the audio amplifier stages. Interfering SSB signals are heard as distorted speech in the sound system. Interfering CW signals are heard as on-and-off clicks or hum.

B-8-2-5 (C) How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of your transmitter’s signals?
A Use CW only
B Use a solid-state transmitter
C Ensure that all station equipment is properly grounded
D Install bypass capacitors on all power supply rectifiers

Properly grounding all station equipment minimizes the radiation of RF which may couple into house wiring and affect other devices in the household.

B-8-2-7 (D) Your SSB HF transmissions are heard muffled on a sound system in the living room regardless of its volume setting. What causes this?
A Harmonics generated at the transmitter
B Improper filtering in the transmitter
C Lack of receiver sensitivity and selectivity
D Audio rectification of strong signals

key words: STRONG SIGNAL. ‘Cross-Modulation’ is a special case of overload. Nothing needs to be wrong with the affected receiver or the transmitter. It is simply that the receiver is exposed to more radio energy that it can handle. ‘Rectification’ leads to ‘detection’: any semiconductor device may start acting like a diode and perform the two functions.

Long wires act as antennas, and interference on things with long wires (e.g. stereo systems) can be quenched using ferrite cores. Wires can also be shortened. (4 questions)

B-8-2-8 (C) What device can be used to minimize the effect of RF pickup by audio wires connected to stereo speakers, intercom amplifiers, telephones, etc.?
A Attenuator
B Diode
C Ferrite core
D Magnet

Long wires act as antennas. The wires should be kept as short as possible. Winding speaker or telephone wires around a ‘ferrite core’ makes an Inductor (a coil). Inductors oppose (inductive reactance) high frequency AC signals such as radio frequency. The ‘ferrite core’ makes for more inductance even with only a few turns of wire. Ferrite is a material with electromagnetic properties.

B-8-2-9 (C) Stereo speaker leads often act as antennas to pick up RF signals. What is one method you can use to minimize this effect?
A Connect the speaker through an audio attenuator
B Connect a diode across the speaker
C Shorten the leads
D Lengthen the leads

Long wires act as antennas. The wires should be kept as short as possible. Winding speaker or telephone wires around a ‘ferrite core’ makes an Inductor (a coil). Inductors oppose (inductive reactance) high frequency AC signals such as radio frequency. The ‘ferrite core’ makes for more inductance even with only a few turns of wire. Ferrite is a material with electromagnetic properties.

B-8-2-10 (B) One method of preventing RF from entering a stereo set through the speaker leads is to wrap each of the speaker leads:
A around a wooden dowel
B through a ferrite core
C around a copper bar
D around an iron bar

Long wires act as antennas. The wires should be kept as short as possible. Winding speaker or telephone wires around a ‘ferrite core’ makes an Inductor (a coil). Inductors oppose (inductive reactance) high frequency AC signals such as radio frequency. The ‘ferrite core’ makes for more inductance even with only a few turns of wire. Ferrite is a material with electromagnetic properties.

B-8-2-11 (A) Stereo amplifiers often have long leads which pick up transmitted signals because they act as:
A receiving antennas
B transmitting antennas
C RF attenuators
D frequency discriminators

Long wires act as antennas. The wires should be kept as short as possible. Winding speaker or telephone wires around a ‘ferrite core’ makes an Inductor (a coil). Inductors oppose (inductive reactance) high frequency AC signals such as radio frequency. The ‘ferrite core’ makes for more inductance even with only a few turns of wire. Ferrite is a material with electromagnetic properties.

key clicks (5 questions)

B-8-3-1 (C) How can you prevent key-clicks?
A By using a better power supply
B By sending CW more slowly
C By using a key-click filter
D By increasing power

‘Key-Clicks’ in a CW Transmitter have two manifestations. One in DISTANT receivers, caused by “too sharp rise and decay times of the carrier”, results in clicks being heard several kHz away from your operating frequency. The other in NEARBY broadcast receivers, caused by the “making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key” (sparks), results in clicks being heard just like from other electrical devices where currents are switched. The first line of defence is a ‘key-click filter’ in the keying circuitry, but troubleshooting in later stages may be required in a modern transmitter.

B-8-3-5 (C) In Morse code transmission, local RF interference (key-clicks) is produced by:
A the power amplifier, and is caused by high frequency parasitic oscillations
B poor waveshaping caused by a poor voltage regulator
C the making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key
D frequency shifting caused by poor voltage regulation

Key word: LOCAL. ‘Key-Clicks’ in a CW Transmitter have two manifestations. One in DISTANT receivers, caused by “too sharp rise and decay times of the carrier”, results in clicks being heard several kHz away from your operating frequency. The other in NEARBY broadcast receivers, caused by the “making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key” (sparks), results in clicks being heard just like from other electrical devices where currents are switched. The first line of defence is a ‘key-click filter’ in the keying circuitry, but troubleshooting in later stages may be required in a modern transmitter.

B-8-3-6 (D) Key-clicks, heard from a Morse code transmitter at a distant receiver, are the result of:
A power supply hum modulating the carrier
B sparks emitting RF from the key contacts
C changes in oscillator frequency on keying
D too sharp rise and decay times of the keyed carrier

Key word: DISTANT. ‘Key-Clicks’ in a CW Transmitter have two manifestations. One in DISTANT receivers, caused by “too sharp rise and decay times of the carrier”, results in clicks being heard several kHz away from your operating frequency. The other in NEARBY broadcast receivers, caused by the “making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key” (sparks), results in clicks being heard just like from other electrical devices where currents are switched. The first line of defence is a ‘key-click filter’ in the keying circuitry, but troubleshooting in later stages may be required in a modern transmitter.

B-8-3-7 (A) In a Morse code transmission, broad bandwidth RF interference (key-clicks) heard at a distance is produced by:
A poor shaping of the waveform
B shift in frequency when keying the transmitter
C sparking at the key contacts
D sudden movement in the receiver loudspeaker

Key word: DISTANCE. ‘Key-Clicks’ in a CW Transmitter have two manifestations. One in DISTANT receivers, caused by “too sharp rise and decay times of the carrier”, results in clicks being heard several kHz away from your operating frequency. The other in NEARBY broadcast receivers, caused by the “making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key” (sparks), results in clicks being heard just like from other electrical devices where currents are switched. The first line of defence is a ‘key-click filter’ in the keying circuitry, but troubleshooting in later stages may be required in a modern transmitter.

B-8-3-8 (A) What should you do if you learn your transmitter is producing key clicks?
A Check the keying filter and the functioning of later stages
B Turn the receiver down
C Regulate the oscillator supply voltage
D Use a choke in the RF power output

‘Key-Clicks’ in a CW Transmitter have two manifestations. One in DISTANT receivers, caused by “too sharp rise and decay times of the carrier”, results in clicks being heard several kHz away from your operating frequency. The other in NEARBY broadcast receivers, caused by the “making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key” (sparks), results in clicks being heard just like from other electrical devices where currents are switched. The first line of defence is a ‘key-click filter’ in the keying circuitry, but troubleshooting in later stages may be required in a modern transmitter.

spurious emissions refers to any unwanted transmitted signal. (3 questions)

B-8-3-2 (B) If someone tells you that signals from your hand-held transceiver are interfering with other signals on a frequency near yours, what could be the cause?
A You need to turn the volume up on your hand-held
B Your hand-held is transmitting spurious emissions
C You need a power amplifier for your hand-held
D Your hand-held has a chirp from weak batteries

‘Spurious Emissions’: signals radiated at a frequency other than the operating frequency. Two examples: ‘Harmonics’, energy at integer multiples of the operating frequency. ‘Parasitic Oscillations’, unwanted oscillation above or below the operating frequency. Proper adjustment and shielding prevent this whole class of transmitter problems called ‘Spurious Emissions’.

B-8-3-3 (D) If your transmitter sends signals outside the band where it is transmitting, what is this called?
A Side tones
B Transmitter chirping
C Off-frequency emissions
D Spurious emissions

‘Spurious Emissions’: signals radiated at a frequency other than the operating frequency. Two examples: ‘Harmonics’, energy at integer multiples of the operating frequency. ‘Parasitic Oscillations’, unwanted oscillation above or below the operating frequency. Proper adjustment and shielding prevent this whole class of transmitter problems called ‘Spurious Emissions’.

B-8-3-4 (C) What problem may occur if your transmitter is operated without the cover and other shielding in place?
A It may interfere with other stations operating near its frequency
B It may transmit a chirpy signal
C It may radiate spurious emissions
D It may transmit a weak signal

‘Spurious Emissions’: signals radiated at a frequency other than the operating frequency. Two examples: ‘Harmonics’, energy at integer multiples of the operating frequency. ‘Parasitic Oscillations’, unwanted oscillation above or below the operating frequency. Proper adjustment and shielding prevent this whole class of transmitter problems called ‘Spurious Emissions’.

parasitic oscillations (3 questions)

B-8-3-9 (C) A parasitic oscillation:
A does not cause any radio interference
B is produced in a transmitter oscillator stage
C is an unwanted signal developed in a transmitter
D is generated by parasitic elements of a Yagi beam

‘Spurious Emissions’: signals radiated at a frequency other than the operating frequency. Two examples: ‘Harmonics’, energy at integer multiples of the operating frequency. ‘Parasitic Oscillations’, unwanted oscillation above or below the operating frequency. Proper adjustment and shielding prevent this whole class of transmitter problems called ‘Spurious Emissions’.

B-8-3-10 (C) Parasitic oscillations in the RF power amplifier stage of a transmitter may be found:
A at high frequencies only
B at low frequencies only
C at high or low frequencies
D on harmonic frequencies

‘Spurious Emissions’: signals radiated at a frequency other than the operating frequency. Two examples: ‘Harmonics’, energy at integer multiples of the operating frequency. ‘Parasitic Oscillations’, unwanted oscillation above or below the operating frequency. Proper adjustment and shielding prevent this whole class of transmitter problems called ‘Spurious Emissions’.

B-8-3-11 (D) Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate parasitic oscillations:
A on VHF frequencies only
B on the transmitter fundamental frequency
C on harmonics of the transmitter frequency
D above or below the transmitter frequency

‘Spurious Emissions’: signals radiated at a frequency other than the operating frequency. Two examples: ‘Harmonics’, energy at integer multiples of the operating frequency. ‘Parasitic Oscillations’, unwanted oscillation above or below the operating frequency. Proper adjustment and shielding prevent this whole class of transmitter problems called ‘Spurious Emissions’.

splatter (see also: overmodulation and modulation meter) (1 question)

B-8-4-6 (D) What causes splatter interference?
A Keying a transmitter too fast
B Signals from a transmitter’s output circuit are being sent back to its input circuit
C The transmitting antenna is the wrong length
D Overmodulating a transmitter

‘Splatter’: “unwanted emission immediately outside the normal necessary bandwidth”, in other words, you interfere with other stations on adjacent frequencies. Too much microphone gain or too much speech processing may lead to ‘Overmodulation’, a major cause of ‘Splatter’. Overmodulation can also force the Linear Power Amplifier into a non-linear zone of operation which leads to ‘Harmonic Radiation’.

harmonic radiation (14 questions!)

B-8-4-1 (B) If a neighbour reports television interference on one or two channels only when you transmit on 15 metres, what is probably the cause of the interference?
A Too much low pass filtering on the transmitter
B Harmonic radiation from your transmitter
C De ionization of the ionosphere near your neighbour’s TV antenna
D TV receiver front-end overload

Unlike ‘Overload’ where a TV receiver is likely to be affected by a broad range of transmitter frequencies, interference to a single TV channel from a specific band of transmitter frequencies suggests ‘Harmonics’ are at play. ‘Harmonic Radiation’ entails integer (whole-number) multiples of the operating frequency. Apart from proper adjustment of the transmitter, a ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter. Three times 21 MHz (15 m) affects TV channel 3 [60-66 MHz]. Four times 21 MHz affects channel 6 [82-88 MHz].

B-8-4-2 (B) What is meant by harmonic radiation?
A Signals which cause skip propagation to occur
B Unwanted signals at frequencies which are multiples of the fundamental (chosen) frequency
C Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60-Hz hum
D Unwanted signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter

‘Harmonic Radiation’ entails integer (whole-number) multiples of the operating frequency. Harmonics result in ‘out-of-band’ signals: you may be heard on another harmonically-related band (e.g., 3 times 7 MHz (40 m) = 21 MHz (15 m) ) or interfere with other services. Apart from proper adjustment of the transmitter, a ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter.

B-8-4-3 (B) Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station not wanted?
A It may cause auroras in the air
B It may cause interference to other stations and may result in out-of-band signals
C It uses large amounts of electric power
D It may cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters

‘Harmonic Radiation’ entails integer (whole-number) multiples of the operating frequency. Harmonics result in ‘out-of-band’ signals: you may be heard on another harmonically-related band (e.g., 3 times 7 MHz (40 m) = 21 MHz (15 m) ) or interfere with other services. Apart from proper adjustment of the transmitter, a ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter.

B-8-4-4 (A) What type of interference may come from a multi-band antenna connected to a poorly tuned transmitter?
A Harmonic radiation
B Parasitic excitation
C Intermodulation
D Auroral distortion

key words: POORLY TUNED TX, MULTI-BAND ANTENNA. Improper adjustment of the transmitter may cause it to put out ‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). The multi-band antenna will readily radiate these signals at other frequencies.

B-8-4-5 (C) If you are told your station was heard on 21 375 kHz, but at the time you were operating on 7125 kHz, what is one reason this could happen?
A You were sending CW too fast
B Your transmitter’s power-supply filter capacitor was bad
C Your transmitter was radiating harmonic signals
D Your transmitter’s power-supply filter choke was bad

‘Harmonic Radiation’ entails integer (whole-number) multiples of the operating frequency. Harmonics result in ‘out-of-band’ signals: you may be heard on another harmonically-related band (e.g., 3 times 7 MHz (40 m) = 21 MHz (15 m) ) or interfere with other services. Apart from proper adjustment of the transmitter, a ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter.

B-8-4-7 (C) Your amateur radio transmitter appears to be creating interference to the television on channel 3 (60-66 MHz) when you are transmitting on the 15 metre band. Other channels are not affected. The most likely cause is:
A a bad ground at the transmitter
B front-end overload of the TV
C harmonic radiation from the transmitter
D no high-pass filter on the TV

‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). Harmonics of several amateur HF frequencies fall right on TV channels: Three times 21 MHz (15 m) affects TV channel 3 [60-66 MHz]. Four times 21 MHz affects channel 6 [82-88 MHz]. Twice 28 MHz (10 m) affects channel 2 [54-60 MHz].

B-8-4-9 (A) In a transmitter, excessive harmonics are produced by:
A overdriven stages
B low SWR
C resonant circuits
D a linear amplifier

‘Splatter’: “unwanted emission immediately outside the normal necessary bandwidth”, in other words, you interfere with other stations on adjacent frequencies. Too much microphone gain or too much speech processing may lead to ‘Overmodulation’, a major cause of ‘Splatter’. Overmodulation can also force the Linear Power Amplifier into a non-linear zone of operation which leads to ‘Harmonic Radiation’.

B-8-4-8 (C) One possible cause of TV interference by harmonics from an SSB transmitter is from “flat topping” - driving the power amplifier into non-linear operation. The most appropriate remedy for this is:
A use another antenna
B reduce oscillator output
C reduce microphone gain
D retune transmitter output

‘Splatter’: “unwanted emission immediately outside the normal necessary bandwidth”, in other words, you interfere with other stations on adjacent frequencies. Too much microphone gain or too much speech processing may lead to ‘Overmodulation’, a major cause of ‘Splatter’. Overmodulation can also force the Linear Power Amplifier into a non-linear zone of operation which leads to ‘Harmonic Radiation’.

B-8-4-10 (A) An interfering signal from a transmitter is found to have a frequency of 57 MHz (TV Channel 2 is 54 - 60 MHz). This signal could be the:
A second harmonic of a 10 metre transmission
B crystal oscillator operating on its fundamental
C seventh harmonic of an 80 metre transmission
D third harmonic of a 15 metre transmission

‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). Harmonics of several amateur HF frequencies fall right on TV channels: Three times 21 MHz (15 m) affects TV channel 3 [60-66 MHz]. Four times 21 MHz affects channel 6 [82-88 MHz]. Twice 28 MHz (10 m) affects channel 2 [54-60 MHz].

B-8-4-11 (B) Harmonics may be produced in the RF power amplifier of a transmitter if:
A modulation is applied to a high-level stage
B excessive drive signal is applied to it
C the output tank circuit is tuned to the fundamental frequency
D the oscillator frequency is unstable

‘Splatter’: “unwanted emission immediately outside the normal necessary bandwidth”, in other words, you interfere with other stations on adjacent frequencies. Too much microphone gain or too much speech processing may lead to ‘Overmodulation’, a major cause of ‘Splatter’. Overmodulation can also force the Linear Power Amplifier into a non-linear zone of operation which leads to ‘Harmonic Radiation’.

B-8-5-1 (C) What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF transmitter to cut down on harmonic radiation?
A A high pass filter
B A CW filter
C A low pass filter
D A key-click filter

key word: HARMONIC. ‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter. The ‘Key-Click’ filter (choke/capacitor) is used at the telegraph key to prevent ‘key-click’ interference. A ‘High-Pass’ filter is used on a TV receiver to prevent overload from an HF transceiver.

B-8-5-2 (B) Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low pass filter in their RF output circuits?
A To reduce RF energy below a cut-off point
B To reduce harmonic radiation
C To reduce fundamental radiation
D To reduce low frequency interference to other amateurs

key words: LOW-PASS. ‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter.

B-8-5-6 (B) To reduce harmonic output from a high frequency transmitter, you would put a __ in the transmission line as close to the transmitter as possible.
A wave trap
B low pass filter
C high pass filter
D band reject filter

key word: HARMONIC. ‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter. A ‘High-Pass’ filter is used on a TV receiver to prevent overload from an HF transceiver.

B-8-5-5 (B) In order to reduce the harmonic output of a high frequency (HF) transmitter, which of the following filters should be installed at the transmitter?
A Rejection
B Low pass
C Key click
D High pass

key word: HARMONIC. ‘Harmonic Radiation’ (integer multiples of the operating frequency). A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter. A ‘High-Pass’ filter is used on a TV receiver to prevent overload from an HF transceiver.

filters (7 questions)

B-8-5-3 (B) What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit?
A A low pass filter
B A band pass filter
C A high pass filter
D An input filter

key words: BLOCKS ABOVE AND BELOW. A ‘Band-Pass’ filter lets frequencies between two design limits pass unaffected. Outside of that range, attenuation is present. A ‘High-Pass’ filter passes frequencies above a certain limit but attenuates lower frequencies. A ‘Low-Pass’ filter lets frequencies below its cutoff frequency pass unimpeded but attenuates higher frequencies.

B-8-5-4 (B) What should be the impedance of a low pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
A Substantially higher
B About the same
C Substantially lower
D Twice the transmission line impedance

All filters are designed with a given impedance in mind. The source impedance and load impedance must match the design criteria of the filter for it to function optimally.

B-8-5-7 (B) To reduce energy from an HF transmitter getting into a television set, you would place a __ as close to the TV as possible.
A band reject filter
B high pass filter
C low pass filter
D wave trap

A ‘High-Pass’ filter is used on a TV receiver to prevent overload from an HF transceiver. A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter.

B-8-5-8 (D) A band pass filter will:
A attenuate high frequencies but not low
B pass frequencies each side of a band
C stop frequencies in a certain band
D allow only certain frequencies through

A ‘Band-Pass’ filter lets frequencies between two design limits pass unaffected. Outside of that range, attenuation is present. A ‘Low-Pass’ filter lets frequencies below its cutoff frequency pass unimpeded but attenuates higher frequencies. A ‘Band-Reject’ filter passes everything BUT a narrow range of frequencies.

B-8-5-9 (D) A band reject filter will:
A allow only two frequencies through
B pass frequencies below 100 MHz
C stop frequencies each side of a band
D pass frequencies each side of a band

A ‘Band-Reject’ filter passes everything BUT a narrow range of frequencies. A ‘Low-Pass’ filter lets frequencies below its cutoff frequency pass unimpeded but attenuates higher frequencies. A ‘Band-Pass’ filter lets frequencies between two design limits pass unaffected. Outside of that range, attenuation is present.

B-8-5-10 (B) A high pass filter would normally be fitted:
A between transmitter output and transmission line
B at the antenna terminals of the TV receiver
C between microphone and speech amplifier
D at the Morse key or keying relay in a transmitter

A ‘High-Pass’ filter is used on a TV receiver to prevent overload from an HF transceiver. A ‘Key-Click’ filter (choke/capacitor) is used at the telegraph key to prevent ‘key-click’ interference. A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter.

B-8-5-11 (B) A low pass filter suitable for a high frequency transmitter would:
A pass audio frequencies below 3 kHz
B attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz
C pass audio frequencies above 3 kHz
D attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz

key words: HIGH-FREQUENCY. A ‘Low-Pass’ filter with a cutoff frequency of 30 MHz helps curb harmonics out of an HF transmitter. The filter allows frequencies BELOW the cutoff to pass freely but attenuates frequencies above the cutoff. The HF segment of the radio spectrum spans 3 MHz to 30 MHz.

{L14a} Establishing and Equipping a Station.

Low-pass filter (3 questions)

B-3-1-1 (C) A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected:
A as close as possible to the antenna
B midway between the transceiver and antenna
C as close as possible to the transceiver output
D as close as possible to the antenna tuner output

A ‘Low-Pass’ filter serves to reduce ‘Harmonics’ which can be generated in overdriven, improperly adjusted or malfunctioning AMPLIFIER stages, either the actual Power Amplifier in a transmitter or an external Linear Power Amplifier. Consequently, it should be inserted as close as possible to the transceiver or amplifier if one is used. The HF Station block diagram begins with: Transceiver, Linear Amplifier, Low-Pass Filter, SWR Bridge, Antenna Switch…

B-3-1-2 (A) A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected:
A as close as possible to the linear amplifier output
B as close as possible to the antenna
C as close as possible to the antenna tuner output
D as close as possible to the linear amplifier input

A ‘Low-Pass’ filter serves to reduce ‘Harmonics’ which can be generated in overdriven, improperly adjusted or malfunctioning AMPLIFIER stages, either the actual Power Amplifier in a transmitter or an external Linear Power Amplifier. Consequently, it should be inserted as close as possible to the transceiver or amplifier if one is used. The HF Station block diagram begins with: Transceiver, Linear Amplifier, Low-Pass Filter, SWR Bridge, Antenna Switch…

B-3-1-3 (D) In designing an HF station, which component would you use to reduce the effects of harmonic radiation?
A Dummy load
B Antenna switch
C SWR bridge
D Low pass filter

A ‘Low-Pass’ filter serves to reduce ‘Harmonics’ which can be generated in overdriven, improperly adjusted or malfunctioning AMPLIFIER stages, either the actual Power Amplifier in a transmitter or an external Linear Power Amplifier. Consequently, it should be inserted as close as possible to the transceiver or amplifier if one is used. The HF Station block diagram begins with: Transceiver, Linear Amplifier, Low-Pass Filter, SWR Bridge, Antenna Switch…

SWR bridge (1 question)

B-3-1-4 (A) Which component in an HF station is the most useful for determining the effectiveness of the antenna system?
A SWR bridge
B Antenna switch
C Linear amplifier
D Dummy load

The ‘SWR Bridge’ permits measuring the relative impedance match between the antenna system and the transceiver (SWR = Standing Wave Ratio). The HF Station block diagram begins with: Transceiver, Linear Amplifier, Low-Pass Filter, SWR Bridge, Antenna Switch…

Antenna switch (1 question)

B-3-1-5 (B) Of the components in an HF station, which component would normally be connected closest to the antenna, antenna tuner and dummy load?
A SWR bridge
B Antenna switch
C Transceiver
D Low pass filter

The ‘Antenna Switch’ provides a convenient way to select a direct connection to an antenna, a connection through the ‘Antenna Tuner’ to other antennas or to the ‘Dummy Load’. The HF Station block diagram begins with: Transceiver, Linear Amplifier, Low-Pass Filter, SWR Bridge, Antenna Switch, …

Antenna tuner (4 questions)

B-3-1-6 (C) Of the components in an HF station, which component would be used to match impedances between the transceiver and antenna?
A Dummy load
B SWR bridge
C Antenna tuner
D Antenna switch

The ‘Antenna Tuner’ provides variable impedance transformation: it can adapt the impedance of the antenna system (which changes with antenna dimensions and operating frequency) to the design impedance of the transceiver. The ‘Antenna Tuner’ permits using an antenna on a frequency or band other than the one for which it was designed.

B-3-1-8 (C) In an HF station, the antenna tuner is usually used for matching the transceiver with:
A mono-band Yagi type antennas
B tri-band Yagi antennas
C most antennas when operating below 14 MHz
D most antennas when operating above 14 MHz

For example, on the 160 m band (1.8 MHz to 2.0 MHz), the band EDGES are 5% removed from the centre frequency of 1.9 MHz. On 80 m (3.5 MHz to 4.0 MHz), the edges are nearly 7% removed from the centre frequency of 3.75 MHz. On 20 m (14.0 MHz to 14.35 MHz), the edges are only 1.2% removed from the centre frequency of 14.175 MHz. Antennas present an acceptable standing wave ratio over a limited range of frequencies, the Antenna Tuner circumvents that limitation.

B-3-1-9 (B) In an HF Station, the antenna tuner is commonly used:
A to tune low pass filters
B with most antennas when operating below 14 MHz
C with most antennas when operating above 14 MHz
D to tune into dummy loads

For example, on the 160 m band (1.8 MHz to 2.0 MHz), the band EDGES are 5% removed from the centre frequency of 1.9 MHz. On 80 m (3.5 MHz to 4.0 MHz), the edges are nearly 7% removed from the centre frequency of 3.75 MHz. On 20 m (14.0 MHz to 14.35 MHz), the edges are only 1.2% removed from the centre frequency of 14.175 MHz. Antennas present an acceptable standing wave ratio over a limited range of frequencies, the Antenna Tuner circumvents that limitation.

B-6-6-1 (C) What device might allow use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for?
A A low pass filter
B A high pass filter
C An antenna tuner
D An SWR meter

The ‘Antenna Tuner’ permits using an antenna on a frequency or band other than the one for which it was designed. The ‘SWR Meter’ measures antenna system efficiency. The ‘Low-Pass Filter’ reduces ‘Harmonic Radiation’. The ‘High-Pass Filter’ protects TV receivers from being overloaded by HF transmissions.

B-6-6-2 (A) What does an antenna tuner do?
A It matches a transceiver to a mismatched antenna system
B It helps a receiver automatically tune in stations that are far away
C It switches an antenna system to a transmitter when sending, and to a receiver when listening
D It switches a transceiver between different kinds of antennas connected to one transmission line

The ‘Antenna Tuner’ provides variable impedance transformation: it can adapt the impedance of a the antenna system (which changes with antenna dimensions and operating frequency) to the design impedance of the transceiver. The ‘Antenna Tuner’ permits using an antenna on a frequency or band other than the one for which it was designed.

Dummy load (2 questions)

B-3-1-7 (A) In an HF station, which component is temporarily connected in the tuning process or for adjustments to the transmitter?
A Dummy load
B SWR bridge
C Low pass filter
D Antenna tuner

The ‘Dummy Load’ (a resistor with a high power rating) dissipates RF energy as heat without radiating the RF on the air. Permits tests or adjustments without causing interference to other stations. The ‘tuning process’ refers to a manual procedure necessary for equipment with vacuum tube final Power Amplifiers where variable capacitors needed to be adjusted with each frequency change.

B-3-14-4 (D) Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use?
A Because it absorbs static electricity
B Because it stores radio waves
C Because it stores electric current
D Because it changes RF energy into heat

The ‘Dummy Load’ (a resistor with a high power rating) dissipates RF energy as heat without radiating the RF on the air. Permits tests or adjustments without causing interference to other stations. The ‘tuning process’ (or ‘loading’) refers to a manual procedure necessary for equipment with vacuum tube final Power Amplifiers where variable capacitors needed to be adjusted.

digital station (5 questions)

B-3-7-1 (C) In an amateur digital radio system, the __ interfaces with the computer.
A power supply
B transceiver
C input/output
D antenna

The Digital Station block diagram: Input/Output, Computer, MODEM, Transceiver, Antenna.

B-3-7-2 (B) In an amateur digital radio system, the modem is connected to the __.
A input/output
B computer
C amplifier
D antenna

The Digital Station block diagram: Input/Output, Computer, MODEM, Transceiver, Antenna.

B-3-7-3 (A) In an amateur digital radio system, the transceiver is connected to the _.
A modem
B computer
C scanner
D input/output

The Digital Station block diagram: Input/Output, Computer, MODEM, Transceiver, Antenna.

B-3-7-4 (B) In an amateur digital radio system, the audio connections of the modem/sound card are connected to the _.
A antenna
B transceiver
C input/output
D scanner

The Digital Station block diagram: Input/Output, Computer, MODEM, Transceiver, Antenna.

B-3-7-5 (B) In an amateur digital radio system, the modem function is often performed by the computer __.
A serial port
B sound card
C keyboard
D scanner

A “modem” is a modulator/demodulator: a device which turn computer digital communications into audible tones and vice-versa. Driven by computer programs, the ‘sound card’ in a computer can readily emulate that function.

keyer

B-3-14-1 (A) What do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code characters?
A An electronic keyer
B A key-operated on/off switch
C A notch filter
D A DTMF keypad

A ‘Keyer’ is an electronic circuit to which connects a ‘Paddle’. The ‘Keyer’ issues dots and dashes in response to contact closures on the ‘Paddle’ by the operator. Dots and dashes are uniformly timed and spaced. The ‘Paddle’ relies on a side to side motion of the hand; it does not lead to fatigue as the traditional hand key does after a while.

speech processor

B-3-14-6 (D) What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A It reduces average transmitter power requirements
B It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone
C It improves voice frequency fidelity
D It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver

The ‘Speech Processor’ makes for more average power being packed in the transmitted sideband. ‘Speech processing’ is raising the average amplitude of the audio input from the microphone closer to an acceptable peak value: i.e., make every passage of the spoken words equally loud. THE AVERAGE can be increased but not the PEAK. Too much speech processing leads to distortion and possibly driving the Linear Power Amplifier with too large a signal (overdriving).

B-3-14-7 (C) If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech processor do to the transmitter’s power?
A It will decrease the peak power output
B It will decrease the average power output
C It will add nothing to the output Peak Envelope Power (PEP)
D It will increase the output PEP

The ‘Speech Processor’ makes for more average power being packed in the transmitted sideband. ‘Speech processing’ is raising the average amplitude of the audio input from the microphone closer to an acceptable peak value: i.e., make every passage of the spoken words equally loud. THE AVERAGE can be increased but not the PEAK. Too much speech processing leads to distortion and possibly driving the Linear Power Amplifier with too large a signal (overdriving).

tx/rx switch

B-3-14-8 (C) When switching from receive to transmit:
A the receiving antenna should be connected
B the power supply should be off
C the receiver should be muted
D the transmit oscillator should be turned off

Switching from receive to transmit supposes FOUR actions: disconnect the antenna from the receiver, connect the antenna to the transmitter, silence the receiver and activate the Power Amplifier in the transmitter. A ‘Relay’ (a multiple-contact electrically-driven switch) frequently performs the antenna changeover an the enabling/disabling of the transceiver sections.

B-3-14-9 (D) A switching system to enable the use of one antenna for a transmitter and receiver should also:
A ground the antenna on receive
B switch between meters
C disconnect the antenna tuner
D disable the unit not being used

Switching from receive to transmit supposes FOUR actions: disconnect the antenna from the receiver, connect the antenna to the transmitter, silence the receiver and activate the Power Amplifier in the transmitter. A ‘Relay’ (a multiple-contact electrically-driven switch) frequently performs the antenna changeover an the enabling/disabling of the transceiver sections.

B-3-14-10 (A) An antenna changeover switch in a transmitter-receiver combination is necessary:
A so that one antenna can be used for transmitter and receiver
B to change antennas for operation on other frequencies
C to prevent RF currents entering the receiver circuits
D to allow more than one transmitter to be used

Switching from receive to transmit supposes FOUR actions: disconnect the antenna from the receiver, connect the antenna to the transmitter, silence the receiver and activate the Power Amplifier in the transmitter. A ‘Relay’ (a multiple-contact electrically-driven switch) frequently performs the antenna changeover an the enabling/disabling of the transceiver sections.

microphone

B-3-14-11 (A) Which of the following components could be used as a dynamic microphone?
A Loudspeaker
B Crystal earpiece
C Resistor
D Capacitor

A ‘Dynamic Microphone’ is built around a membrane, a voice coil and a magnet: sound waves cause the membrane to vibrate, the voice coil, attached to the membrane, moves in and out of a magnetic field thus producing a tiny electrical signal corresponding to the voice. Loudspeaker employ the reverse principle: an audio signal applied to the voice coil moves the membrane to reproduce sound waves.

B-3-14-3 (D) What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation?
A A receiver audio filter
B A terminal-voice controller
C A splatter filter
D A microphone

Remember your transmitter block diagrams: the Microphone connects to the Speech Amplifier, the first stage in a voice transmitter.

B-3-14-5 (C) What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone?
A VCO
B VFO
C VOX
D VXO

VOX = “Voice Operated Transmit”. VFO = “Variable Frequency Oscillator”. [ the other two are beyond the scope of a Basic license. ]

B-3-14-2 (A) Where would you connect a microphone for voice operation?
A To a transceiver
B To a power supply
C To an antenna switch
D To an antenna

Remember your transmitter block diagrams: the Microphone connects to the Speech Amplifier, the first stage in a voice transmitter.

{L14b} Digital Modes.

packet systems (6 questions)

B-3-15-1 (D) What does “connected” mean in an AX.25 packet-radio link?
A A telephone link is working between two stations
B A message has reached an amateur station for local delivery
C A transmitting and receiving station are using a digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until they are finished
D A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving station; it replies that the data is being received correctly

When two PACKET stations are “connected”, the receiving station acknowledges each received packet as valid. A “connection” involves only two stations; each acknowledging the packets from the other. Concurrent “connections” can share the same frequency. A ‘Terminal-Node Controller’ (TNC) is the key component in a packet station. The TNC is a specialized MODEM which assembles/de-assembles data packets and performs error checking.

B-3-15-2 (D) What does “monitoring” mean on a packet-radio frequency?
A A member of the Amateur Auxiliary is copying all messages
B A receiving station is displaying all messages sent to it, and replying that the messages are being received correctly
C Industry Canada is monitoring all messages
D A receiving station is displaying messages that may not be sent to it, and is not replying to any message

A ‘Terminal-Node Controller’ (TNC) is the key component in a packet station. The TNC is a specialized MODEM which assembles/de-assembles data packets and performs error checking. A TNC in “Monitor” mode will display the packets heard but not attempt to acknowledge any.

B-3-15-3 (C) What is a digipeater?
A A repeater that changes audio signals to digital data
B A station that retransmits any data that it receives
C A station that retransmits only data that is marked to be retransmitted
D A repeater built using only digital electronics parts

A ‘Digipeater’ (contraction of ‘digital repeater’) only repeats packets specifically addressed for routing through that digipeater: i.e., marked with its call sign. Unlike duplex voice repeaters using two frequencies, the digipeater receives, temporarily stores and retransmits the data packets on a single frequency.

B-3-15-4 (A) What does “network” mean in packet radio?
A A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent over long distances
B A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so data can be sent over long distances
C The connections on terminal-node controllers
D The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects other callers if a station is already connected

In packet radio operation, a ‘network’ is a succession of digipeaters (or normal packet stations which can also ‘digipeat’) used to connect to a station normally not within range of the originating station.

B-3-15-5 (D) In AX.25 packet-radio operation, what equipment connects to a terminal-node controller?
A A transceiver and a modem
B A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver
C A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver
D A transceiver, a computer and possibly a GPS receiver

An amateur packet station would comprise a computer, a terminal-node controller and a transceiver. A GPS (Global Positioning System) receiver may be used if geographical coordinates need to be transmitted.

B-3-15-9 (C) Which of the following terms does not apply to packet radio?
A Automatic Packet Reporting System (APRS)
B AX.25
C Baudot
D ASCII

Key word: NOT. ‘Baudot’ is the encoding used for RTTY (Radioteletype). On packet, the computer exchanges ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) with the TNC (terminal-node controller). The TNC packages packets per the AX.25 protocol. Automatic Packet Reporting System (APRS) is one application of packet radio.

block diagram (1 question)

B-3-15-6 (C) How would you modulate a 2 meter FM transceiver to produce packet-radio emissions?
A Connect a keyboard to the transceiver’s microphone input
B Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver’s microphone input
C Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver’s microphone input
D Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the transceiver’s carrier wave

The Digital Station block diagram: Input/Output, Computer, MODEM, Transceiver, Antenna. In a packet station, the TNC is the specialized modem (i.e., it incorporates a modem) used to assemble/disassemble data packets.

modes (2 questions)

B-3-15-8 (A) Digital transmissions use signals called __ to transmit the states 1 and 0:
A mark and space
B packet and AMTOR
C Baudot and ASCII
D dot and dash

The terms ‘Mark’ (on) and ‘Space’ (off) date back to the days of land-line telegraph where dots and dashes corresponding to the incoming pulses were inked or embossed on paper ribbon. When the telegraph circuit was energized, the receiving machine would mark the paper, otherwise blank space appeared on the paper. [ Samuel F. B. Morse perfected a “Telegraph Register” which could mark dots and dashes on a moving strip of paper in the years 1832 to 1844. US Patent 000006420 ]

B-3-15-10 (A) When using AMTOR transmissions, there are two modes that may be utilized. Mode A uses Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) protocol and is normally used:
A for communications after contact has been established
B at all times. Mode B is for test purposes only
C only when communications have been completed
D when making a general call

AMTOR (Amateur Teleprinting Over Radio). Mode ‘B’ [Forward Error Correction, groups of 5 characters are sent twice] used for CQ (call to any station), bulletins or nets where no acknowledgements are exchanged. Mode ‘A’ [Automatic Repeat Request, characters sent by groups of three must be acknowledged] used when two stations are in contact (similar to the “connection” in packet).

bandwidth and separation (1 question)

B-3-15-7 (B) When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (center to center) to minimize interference?
A 60 Hz
B 250 to 500 Hz
C Approximately 6 kHz
D Approximately 3 kHz

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz. Minimum frequency separation: CW = 150 to 500 Hz, RTTY = 250 to 500 Hz, SSB = 3 kHz to 5 kHz. [ The ‘Mark’ and ‘Space’ states are represented by two discrete frequencies normally 170 Hz apart from one another. ]

overmod (1 question)

B-3-15-11 (C) With a digital communication mode based on a computer sound card, what is the result of feeding too much audio in the transceiver?
A Lower error rate
B Power amplifier overheating
C Splatter or out-of-channel emissions
D Higher signal-to-noise ratio

‘Overdeviation (FM)’ or ‘Overmodulation (SSB)’ results in excessive bandwidth on the air (splatter) and interfering with stations using adjacent frequencies (‘out-of-channel emissions’).

{L09b} Safety.

access

B-3-18-1 (A) How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home?
A Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line
B Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line
C Put a “Danger - High Voltage” sign in the station
D Put fuses in the main power line

key word: UNAUTHORIZED. A locked switch in line with the electrical circuit feeding the station would prevent unauthorized operation of the station.

B-3-18-2 (D) How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car?
A Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it
B Turn the radio off when you are not using it
C Put a “Do not touch” sign on the radio
D Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it

key word: UNAUTHORIZED. Locking away or taking away the microphone would prevent unauthorized use of the transmitter.

B-3-18-3 (D) Why would you use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station?
A For safety, in case the main fuses fail
B To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency
C For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency
D To keep unauthorized persons from using your station

key word: UNAUTHORIZED. A locked switch in line with the electrical circuit feeding the station would prevent unauthorized operation of the station.

high voltage

B-3-18-4 (D) Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?
A To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet
B To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet
C To turn the power supply off when it is not being used
D To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages

key words: HIGH-VOLTAGE. Devices operating with high voltage should always include an ‘interlock’ switch so they power down when cabinets are open to prevent electrocution.

current

B-3-18-5 (D) How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal?
A Approximately 10 amperes
B More than 20 amperes
C Current flow through the human body is never fatal
D As little as 20 milliamperes

If the human heart is part of the electrocution path, even one tenth of an ampere can lead to cardiac arrest.

heart

B-3-18-6 (A) Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current?
A The heart
B The brain
C The liver
D The lungs

If the human heart is part of the electrocution path, even one tenth of an ampere can lead to cardiac arrest.

voltage

B-3-18-7 (C) What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans?
A 1000 volts
B 2000 volts
C 30 volts
D 100 volts

Under certain circumstances, even 30 VOLTS can be dangerous. If the human heart is part of the electrocution path, even one tenth of an ampere can lead to cardiac arrest. Wet skin or cuts to the skin and the exact path of the current are all factors that determine the severity of electrocution.

turn off power before rendering assitance

B-3-18-8 (B) What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage?
A Run from the area so you won’t be burned too
B Turn off the power, call for emergency help and provide first-aid if needed
C Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help
D Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage

Step number One: turn off the power. Do not risk electrocuting yourself and become a second victim.

B-3-18-9 (C) What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source?
A Call an electrician
B Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg
C Turn off the high voltage switch before removing the person from contact with the source
D Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area

Step number One: turn off the power. Do not risk electrocuting yourself and become a second victim.

B-3-18-10 (B) Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to first:
A remove and check fuse from power supply
B turn off the power and remove power plug
C short out leads of filter capacitor
D check action of capacitor bleeder

key words: “MAINS” OPERATED. This refers to ‘Household’ current which runs at 120 volts and can supply hundreds of amperes (for a brief time) before a fuse or breaker interrupts the circuit after a fault. 30 VOLTS is considered potentially dangerous to humans and less than A TENTH of an AMPERE can lead to cardiac arrest.

shocks

B-3-18-11 (C) Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur transmitter while the supply is operating is not a recommended technique because of the risk of:
A overmodulation
B blowing the fuse
C electric shock
D damaging the transmitter

This was especially true of transmitters using vacuum tubes. Plate voltages ran into the hundreds of volts with current capacities of hundreds of milliamperes. 30 VOLTS is considered potentially dangerous to humans and less than A TENTH of an AMPERE can lead to cardiac arrest.

B-3-19-1 (D) For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded in an amateur station?
A The antenna transmission line
B The AC power line
C The power supply primary
D All station equipment

An external ground connection on each cabinet serves as a backup to the normal electrical outlet ground ( the ‘green’ wire in a three-lead power cord ).

grounds

B-3-19-2 (B) If a separate ground system is not possible for your amateur station, an alternative indoor grounding point could be:
A a metallic natural gas pipe
B a metallic cold water pipe
C a plastic cold water pipe
D a window screen

A ‘metallic cold water pipe’ normally offers the most direct solid conduction to Earth ground.

B-3-19-3 (A) To protect you against electrical shock, the chassis of each piece of your station equipment should be connected to:
A a good ground connection
B a dummy load
C insulated shock mounts
D the antenna

An external ground connection on each cabinet serves as a backup to the normal electrical outlet ground ( the ‘green’ wire in a three-lead power cord ).

B-3-19-4 (D) Which of these materials is best for a ground rod driven into the earth?
A Hard plastic
B Iron or steel
C Fiberglass
D Copper-clad steel

‘Copper-Clad’ ( steel core, copper plating ) offers rigidity (when hammering the rod into the ground) and conductivity (for best ground connection).

B-3-19-5 (C) If you ground your station equipment to a ground rod driven into the earth, what is the shortest length the rod should be?
A 2.5 metres (8 ft)
B 3 metres (10 ft)
C The station ground system must conform to applicable electrical code requirements
D 1.2 metre (4 ft)

Like everything else about electricity, station and antenna system grounding is governed by the electrical Code applicable to your province. Typically inspired by the “Canadian Electrical Code” (CSA Group, formerly Canadian Standard Association), provincial requirements are often appended to the national code.

B-3-19-6 (C) Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected in a power supply?
A To the “hot” side of the power switch
B To the fuse
C To the chassis
D To the white wire

The ‘green wire’ in a three-wire AC line cord is a ground connection. Securing the ‘green wire’ to the chassis (and outside cabinet) keeps the chassis at ground potential if a fault ever caused the ‘live’ side (120 volts) of the AC line to contact the chassis.

B-3-19-7 (D) If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 10 metres (33 feet) down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you touch the front panel of your HF transceiver?
A Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy to take an easier path out of the transceiver through you
B Because the transceiver’s heat-sensing circuit is not working to start the cooling fan
C Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist earth
D Because the ground wire has significant reactance and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection

key word: 10 METRES. RF ‘hot spots’ and RF ‘burns’ are symptoms of ‘Stray RF’. This is relatively long in comparison with some of the wavelengths in the HF (High Frequency) spectrum. For example, 10 metres is a quarter wavelength on the 40 metre band. A wire this long looks like an antenna and will not provide a low impedance ground connection necessary to evacuate ‘Stray RF’.

B-3-19-8 (D) What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur station?
A Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects to your station
B Drive the ground rod at least 4m (14 feet) into the ground
C Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity
D Keep the station’s ground wire as short as possible

RF ‘hot spots’ and RF ‘burns’ are symptoms of ‘Stray RF’. To eliminate ‘Stray RF’, a low impedance path to ground must be provided. Only SHORT and WIDE ground conductors can provide low impedance.

B-3-19-9 (B) Which statement about station grounding is true?
A The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high-impedance conductors
B RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire
C A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment
D If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground

RF ‘hot spots’ and RF ‘burns’ are symptoms of ‘Stray RF’. To eliminate ‘Stray RF’, a low impedance path to ground must be provided. Only SHORT and WIDE ground conductors can provide low impedance.

B-3-19-10 (D) On mains operated power supplies, the ground wire should be connected to the metal chassis of the power supply. This ensures, in case there is a fault in the power supply, that the chassis:
A does not become conductive to prevent electric shock
B becomes conductive to prevent electric shock
C develops a high voltage compared to the ground
D does not develop a high voltage with respect to the ground

The ‘green wire’ in a three-wire AC line cord is a ground connection. Securing the ‘green wire’ to the chassis (and outside cabinet) keeps the chassis at ground potential if a fault ever caused the ‘live’ side (120 volts) of the AC line to contact the chassis.

B-3-19-11 (C) The purpose of using a three-wire power cord and plug on amateur radio equipment is to:
A prevent internal short circuits
B make it inconvenient to use
C prevent the chassis from becoming live
D prevent the plug from being reversed in the wall outlet

The ‘green wire’ in a three-wire AC line cord is a ground connection. Securing the ‘green wire’ to the chassis (and outside cabinet) keeps the chassis at ground potential if a fault ever caused the ‘live’ side (120 volts) of the AC line to contact the chassis.

B-3-20-1 (C) Why should you ground all antenna and rotator cables when your amateur station is not in use?
A To avoid radio frequency interference
B To make sure everything will stay in place
C To help protect the station equipment and building from lightning damage
D To lock the antenna system in one position

Grounding antenna and rotator cables help direct an eventual lightning strike as directly to ground as possible.

lightning arrestors

B-3-20-2 (A) You want to install a lightning arrestor on your antenna transmission line, where should it be inserted?
A Outside, as close to earth grounding as possible
B Close to the antenna
C Behind the transceiver
D Anywhere on the line

The lightning arrestor must be outside to prevent as much energy as possible from entering the premises. It must be close to ground so that a path with the least possible impedance (resistance + inductance) can divert the most energy into the ground. Peak voltage between the transmission line and ground is thus minimized. Rise time in a lightning bolt is measured in microseconds (i.e., high frequency); voltage is high and current is zero in the first instant an inductance is subjected to a pulse.

B-3-20-3 (D) How can amateur station equipment best be protected from lightning damage?
A Use heavy insulation on the wiring
B Never turn off the equipment
C Disconnect the ground system from all radios
D Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables

If station equipment is totally disconnected from external circuits (power and antenna), damage to station equipment from lightning or voltage surges become impossible.

B-3-20-4 (A) What equipment should be worn for working on an antenna tower?
A Approved equipment in accordance with applicable standards concerning fall protection
B A reflective vest of approved colour
C A flashing red, yellow or white light
D A grounding chain

In Canada, worker safety is a provincial responsibility. A ‘safety harness’ and ‘hard hat’ are minimum requirements.

falls

B-3-20-5 (C) Why should you wear approved fall arrest equipment if you are working on an antenna tower?
A To keep the tower from becoming unbalanced while you are working
B To safely hold your tools so they don’t fall and injure someone on the ground
C To prevent you from accidentally falling
D To safely bring any tools you might use up and down the tower

‘Fall prevention’ is a serious matter. In Canada, worker safety is a provincial responsibility. A ‘safety harness’ and ‘hard hat’ are minimum requirements.

B-3-20-6 (D) For safety, how high should you place a horizontal wire antenna?
A Above high-voltage electrical lines
B Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or repairs
C As close to the ground as possible
D High enough so that no one can touch any part of it from the ground

Even at modest power, touching a radiating antenna or open-wire line can lead to ‘RF burns’. Voltage is not the only factor, radio frequency reaches deep into the skin, potentially causing nasty burns. Suspending an antenna above electric lines is a dangerous mistake: if the antenna dropped, lethal voltages would be carried back to the station.

B-3-20-7 (C) Why should you wear a hard hat if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?
A To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing
B So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the tower and will stay away
C To protect your head from something dropped from the tower
D So you won’t be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall

Think for a second about a screwdriver, wrench or a heavy bolt falling on your head from a height of 14 metres (48 feet).

antennas

B-3-20-8 (C) Why should your outside antennas be high enough so that no one can touch them while you are transmitting?
A Touching the antenna might radiate harmonics
B Touching the antenna might cause television interference
C Touching the antenna might cause RF burns
D Touching the antenna might reflect the signal back to the transmitter and cause damage

Even at modest power, touching a radiating antenna or open-wire line can lead to ‘RF burns’. Voltage is not the only factor, radio frequency reaches deep into the skin, potentially causing nasty burns.

B-3-20-9 (A) Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open wire transmission line while you are transmitting with it?
A Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person
B Because contact might break the transmission line
C Because contact might cause spurious emissions
D Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter

Even at modest power, touching a radiating antenna or open-wire line can lead to ‘RF burns’. Voltage is not the only factor, radio frequency reaches deep into the skin, potentially causing nasty burns.

B-3-20-10 (D) What safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?
A Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded
B Inform your neighbours so they are aware of your intentions
C Turn off the main power switch in your house
D Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the transmission line

“Disconnecting the transmission line”, that is an important precaution to ensure that no RF is ever sent to the antenna. This is especially important if there are several parties in the work crew: an operator could return to the station, turn-on a transmitter and put someone outside at risk.

B-3-20-11 (C) What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
A It should not be installed in a wet area
B It should not be installed higher than you can reach
C It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it
D It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally run into it

Even at modest power, touching a radiating antenna or open-wire line can lead to ‘RF burns’. Voltage is not the only factor, radio frequency reaches deep into the skin, potentially causing nasty burns.

UHF and microwave

B-3-21-1 (A) What should you do for safety when operating at UHF and microwave frequencies?
A Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied
B Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point
C Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test
D Never use a horizontally polarized antenna

RF energy can heat body tissue. 1000 MHz is generally considered to be the low end of the MICROWAVE spectrum. Microwave energy has long been known for its ‘heating’ effect ( think “microwave oven” ). Never point antennas at anyone. Never look into antennas. Disconnect transmission lines before working on antennas (to further reduce the odds of an error at the station exposing to RF).

B-3-21-2 (B) What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna?
A Make sure that RF field screens are in place
B Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting
C Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction
D Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. Never point antennas at anyone. Never look into antennas. Disconnect transmission lines before working on antennas (to further reduce the odds of an error at the station exposing to RF).

B-3-21-3 (A) What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier?
A Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on
B Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected
C Make sure the antenna transmission line is properly grounded
D Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna transmission line

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk.

B-3-21-4 (B) Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting?
A To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions
B To reduce your exposure to the radio-frequency energy
C To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction
D To keep static charges from building up

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. 30 MHz to 300 MHz is the range of radio frequencies over which Health-Canada’s “Safety Code 6” recommends the lowest exposure level.

RF exposure
rf exposure (10 questions)

keep the antennas away from people

B-3-21-5 (D) How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting?
A Pointed towards the station you are contacting
B Pointed away from the station you are contacting
C Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground
D Away from your head and away from others

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. 30 MHz to 300 MHz is the range of radio frequencies over which Health-Canada’s “Safety Code 6” recommends the lowest exposure level.

B-3-21-9 (A) If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them?
A Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating
B Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects
C Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation
D Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize transmission line length

RF energy can heat body tissue. Keep the antennas away from people and use as little power as possible.

B-3-21-10 (A) Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures?
A So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures
B So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm
C So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy
D So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. Never point antennas at anyone. Never look into antennas. Disconnect transmission lines before working on antennas (to further reduce the odds of an error at the station exposing to RF).

B-3-21-11 (C) For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located?
A As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter
B Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder
C As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna
D Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground

Even at modest power, touching a radiating antenna or open-wire line can lead to ‘RF burns’. Voltage is not the only factor, radio frequency reaches deep into the skin, potentially causing nasty burns.

RF heats tissue

B-3-21-6 (C) How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue?
A It paralyzes the tissue
B It causes hair to fall out
C It heats the tissue
D It lowers blood pressure

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. 30 MHz to 300 MHz is the range of radio frequencies over which Health-Canada’s “Safety Code 6” recommends the lowest exposure level.

B-3-21-8 (C) Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue?
A It causes blood flow to stop
B It has no effect on the body
C It heats the tissue
D It causes ionizing radiation poisoning

RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. 30 MHz to 300 MHz is the range of radio frequencies over which Health-Canada’s “Safety Code 6” recommends the lowest exposure level.

RF heats eyeballs

B-3-21-7 (A) Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation?
A Eyes
B Heart
C Liver
D Hands

The inside of the eye is mostly liquid. Ever seen a cup of water brought to a boil in a microwave oven ? RF energy can heat body tissue. VHF and UHF frequencies present the greatest risk. 30 MHz to 300 MHz is the range of radio frequencies over which Health-Canada’s “Safety Code 6” recommends the lowest exposure level. Keep antennas away from your head.

Health Canada makes the rules

B-1-24-1 (D) What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body?
A Canadian Standards Association
B Environment Canada
C Transport Canada
D Health Canada

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

Safety code 6 sets RF exposure limits

B-1-24-2 (C) What is the purpose of the Safety Code 6?
A It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection
B It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection
C It gives RF exposure limits for the human body
D It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

B-1-24-9 (D) Which statement is correct?
A Safety Code 6 regulates the operation of receivers only
B The operation of portable transmitting equipment is of no concern in Safety Code 6
C Portable transmitters, operating below 1 GHz, with an output power equal to, or less than 7 watts, are exempt from the requirements of Safety Code 6
D Safety Code 6 sets limits for RF exposure from all radio transmitters regardless of power output

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

Safety code 6 says that VHF frequencies have the greatest potential for harm because that’s what the human body absorbs the most

B-1-24-3 (C) According to Safety Code 6, what frequencies cause us the greatest risk from RF energy?
A Above 1500 MHz
B 3 to 30 MHz
C 30 to 300 MHz
D 300 to 3000 MHz

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

B-1-24-4 (C) Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to Safety Code 6?
A There are fewer transmitters operating in this range
B Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time
C The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range
D There are more transmitters operating in this range

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

There is no maximum power specified

B-1-24-5 (D) According to Safety Code 6, what is the maximum safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?
A 10 watts
B 25 watts
C 125 milliwatts
D Not specified

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz, and increases everywhere else

B-1-24-6 (C) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is increased from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz
B Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is decreased from 10 MHz to 1 MHz
C Permissible exposure levels of RF fields decreases as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz
D Maximum exposure levels of RF fields to the general population, in the frequency range 10 to 300 MHz, is 28 V/m RMS (E-field)

key word: NOT. Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

B-1-24-7 (D) The permissible exposure levels of RF fields:
A decreases, as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz
B increases, as frequency is increased from 10 MHz to 300 MHz
C decreases, as frequency is increased above 300 MHz
D increases, as frequency is increased from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz

Health-Canada publishes ‘Safety Code 6’ (Limits of Human Exposure to Radiofrequency Electromagnetic Fields) to protect workers and general public from adverse health effects. The lowest exposure limit is set to ‘28 volts per metre’ for the range of 10 MHz to 300 MHz. This range is presumed to be the one over which the human body most readily absorbs RF energy. Limits on either side of that range are higher. Since 1999, a previous exemption for portable transmitters has been removed (i.e., handhelds are no longer exempt from code requirements).

hand-helds are not exempt

B-1-24-8 (B) Which statement is not correct?
A Safety Code 6 specifies lower exposure limits for the general public in uncontrolled areas than it does for people in controlled areas
B hand held transmitters are excluded from Safety Code 6 requirements
C Antenna gain, distance, transmitter power and frequency are all factors which influence the electric field strength and a person’s exposure to radio energy.
D Safety Code 6 uses different units for the magnetic field strength and the electric field strength when stating limits

Key words: NOT CORRECT. All installations must comply with Safety Code 6. At one time, portable transmitters below 1 GHz and less than 7 watts were automatically excluded from evaluation; this is now false.

spot the nonsense

B-1-24-10 (B) Which of these statements about Safety Code 6 is false?
A Safety Code 6 sets limits for allowable rates at which RF energy is absorbed in the body (Specific Absorption Rate)
B Safety Code 6 sets limits in terms of power levels fed into antennas
C Safety Code 6 sets limits for contact currents that could be drawn from ungrounded or poorly grounded objects
D Safety Code 6 sets limits for induced currents, electrical field strength and magnetic field strength from electromagnetic radiation

Key word: FALSE. The Code does not refer directly to power levels. Antenna gain, distance, transmitter power and frequency are all factors which influence exposure. Exposure limits relate to electric (volt/metre) and magnetic (ampere/metre) field strengths; Specific Absorption Rate (SAR) limits are expressed in watts/kilogram; induced and contact currents are stated in milliamperes.

{L01} Regulations, Part I: Radiocommunication Act and Radiocommunication Regulations.

The law, and the government

The radio communications act exists.

B-1-1-1 (C) Authority to make regulations governing radiocommunications is derived from:
A the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service
B the ITU Radio Regulations
C the Radiocommunication Act
D the Radiocommunication Regulations

key word: AUTHORITY. Countries administer radio within their borders and territorial waters. The Canadian parliament enacted the ‘Radiocommunication Act’ (a law). This law grants authority to Industry Canada to regulate radio communications. That department then issues ‘Radiocommunication Regulations’ where services such as the “maritime service”, the “aeronautical service” and the “amateur radio service” are defined.

B-1-1-2 (D) Authority to make “Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service” is derived from:
A the Radiocommunication Regulations
B the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service
C the ITU Radio Regulations
D the Radiocommunication Act

key word: AUTHORITY. Countries administer radio within their borders and territorial waters. The Canadian parliament enacted the ‘Radiocommunication Act’ (a law). This law grants authority to Industry Canada to regulate radio communications. That department then issues ‘Radiocommunication Regulations’ where services such as the “maritime service”, the “aeronautical service” and the “amateur radio service” are defined.

B-1-3-4 (B) What government document states the offences and penalties for non compliance of the rules governing radiocommunications?
A The Radiocommunications Law Reform Act of 2002
B The Radiocommunication Act
C The Official Radio Rules of Canada
D The Radiocommunications Regulations

Key words: OFFENCES and PENALTIES. Offences and their consequences are defined when a law is enacted by government; in this case, the Radiocommunication Act.

Industry Canada is responsible for its adminstration.

B-1-1-3 (C) The Department that is responsible for the administration of the Radiocommunication Act is:
A Communications Canada
B National Defence
C Industry Canada
D Transport Canada

Transport-Canada [<1970] and Communications-Canada [1970-1993] HAVE looked after radio licences IN THE PAST. Countries administer radio within their borders and territorial waters. The Canadian parliament enacted the ‘Radiocommunication Act’ (a law). This law grants authority to Industry Canada to regulate radio communications. That department then issues ‘Radiocommunication Regulations’ where services such as the “maritime service”, the “aeronautical service” and the “amateur radio service” are defined.

In so doing, Industry Canada creates the “radiocommunication regulations,” and those regulations define the “amateur radio service.”

B-1-1-4 (C) The “amateur radio service” is defined in:
A the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service
B the FCC’s Part 97 rules
C the Radiocommunication Regulations
D the Radiocommunication Act

Countries administer radio within their borders and territorial waters. The Canadian parliament enacted the ‘Radiocommunication Act’ (a law). This law grants authority to Industry Canada to regulate radio communications. That department then issues ‘Radiocommunication Regulations’ where services such as the “maritime service”, the “aeronautical service” and the “amateur radio service” are defined.

Certificates

There is such a thing as an operator certificate. (There is no such thing as a license.)

A station must be operated by a person with a certificate.

B-1-6-1 (B) An amateur radio station with a maximum input power to the final stage of 2 watts:
A is exempt from regulatory control by Industry Canada
B must be operated by a person with an Amateur Certificate and call sign
C must be licensed by Industry Canada
D need not be licensed in isolated areas only

Reference to power is misleading. ALL Amateur stations must be duly authorized.

The certificate authorizes communications with other authorized stations.

B-1-6-2 (B) An amateur station may be used to communicate with:
A any station transmitting in the amateur bands
B stations operated under similar authorizations
C any stations which are identified for special contests
D armed forces stations during special contests and training exercises

This is a catch. “any station transmitting in the amateur bands” seems reasonable until you think that this other station may be operating unlawfully without a certificate. “Stations operated under similar authorizations” is a much better answer. Amateurs are not allowed to knowingly conduct conversations with unauthorized stations (“bootleggers”).

You must provide the certificate upon request.

B-1-2-5 (B) The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate shall, at the request of a duly appointed radio inspector, produce the certificate, or a copy thereof, to the inspector, within __ hours after the request:
A 72
B 48
C 12
D 24

Holder of radio authorization has 48 HOURS to fulfill the request of a radio inspector. (Radio Regulations)

The certificate is good for life.

B-1-2-2 (D) An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is valid for:
A five years
B three years
C one year
D life

Valid for life. No annual renewal. No yearly fees. Allows operating anywhere in Canada.

You must have an address in canada to get a canadian amateur radio certificate.

B-1-4-7 (B) What conditions must candidates to amateur radio certification meet?
A Be at least 14 years of age and a Canadian citizen or permanent resident
B Have a valid address in Canada
C Be a Canadian citizen
D Be a Canadian citizen or permanent resident

“There are no age or nationality restrictions to those who may take the examinations. Candidates must provide adequate photo identification to examiners prior to the examination.” (RIC-3, Age and Nationality)

There is no age restriction.

B-1-4-1 (D) What age must you be to hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification?
A 70 years or younger
B 18 years or older
C 14 years or older
D There are no age limits

“There are no age or nationality restrictions to those who may take the examinations. Candidates must provide adequate photo identification to examiners prior to the examination.” (RIC-3, Age and Nationality)

The certificate has no fee.

B-1-2-6 (C) The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is:
A $10 B $24
C free
D $32

The initial certificate is free. There are no yearly renewals.

The certificate may be suspended.

B-1-3-5 (D) Which of the following is not correct? The Minister may suspend an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:
A Where the holder has contravened the Radiocommunication Act, its Regulations, or the terms and conditions of the certificate
B Where the certificate was obtained through misrepresentation
C Where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due
D With no notice, or opportunity to make representation thereto

key word: NOT correct. The holder is always notified of a suspension or revocation. Except for failure to pay fees, license holders ARE given a chance to make representations. (Radiocommunication Act)

The certificate lives at the “station,” which has an address known to Industry Canada.

B-1-2-4 (B) The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:
A must be kept on the person to whom it is issued
B must be retained at the station
C must be put on file
D must be kept in a safe place

Station licenses used to be issued for a specific address. Keeping the Certificate at the address supplied to Industry Canada is now the norm.

B-1-2-7 (C) The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate should be:
A retained on the radio amateur’s person
B retained in the radio amateur’s vehicle
C retained at the address provided to Industry Canada
D retained in a safety deposit box

Station licenses used to be issued for a specific address. Keeping the Certificate at the address supplied to Industry Canada is now the norm.

The government wants to know your address.

B-1-2-1 (A) What must you do to notify your mailing address changes?
A Contact Industry Canada and provide details of your address change
B Telephone your local club, and give them your new address
C Contact an accredited examiner and provide details of your address change
D Write amateur organizations advising them of your new address, enclosing your certificate

Industry Canada must be notified WITHIN 30 DAYS of a change of address. (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

B-1-2-3 (B) Whenever a change of address is made:
A within the same province, there is no need to notify Industry Canada
B Industry Canada must be advised of any change in postal address
C Industry Canada must be notified within 14 days of operation at the new address
D the station shall not be operated until a change of address card is forwarded to Industry Canada

Industry Canada must be notified WITHIN 30 DAYS of a change of address. (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

what the certificate gets you

The amateur certificate grants an authorization to operate amateur stations.

B-1-4-6 (C) The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with the Basic Qualification is authorized to operate following stations:
A a station authorized in the maritime service
B any authorized station except stations authorized in the amateur, aeronautical or maritime services
C a station authorized in the amateur service
D a station authorized in the aeronautical service

Holder of radio authorization must limit his activities to services specified in the license. An Amateur Certificate is valid for Amateur bands only.

Certain other certificates are equivalent to an amateur certificate.

Specifically, the “Canadian Radiocommunication Operator General Certificate Maritime (RGMC)

B-1-4-3 (A) Holders of which one of the following certificates may be issued an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate?

A Canadian Radiocommunication Operator General Certificate Maritime (RGMC)

B Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Maritime (ROC-M)

C Canadian Restricted Operator’s Certificate - Maritime Commercial (ROC-MC)

D Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Aeronautical (ROC-A)

“Persons holding any of the following Canadian certificates may be issued an authorization to operate in the amateur radio service with the same operating privileges as the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Morse code and Advanced Qualifications: Radiocommunication Operator General Certificate Maritime (RGMC), …” (RIC-3, Certificate Equivalency and RIC-16)

The certificate grants the authorization to install equipment for other certificate holders. Nobody else. The certificate does not authorize you to install equipment for anyone and everyone.

B-1-5-1 (B) Radio apparatus may be installed, placed in operation, repaired or maintained by the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification on behalf of another person:
A if the transmitter of a station, for which a radio authorization is to be applied for, is type approved and crystal controlled
B if the other person is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate to operate in the amateur radio service
C pending the granting of a radio authorization, if the apparatus covers the amateur and commercial frequency bands
D pending the granting of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate if the apparatus covers the amateur frequency bands only

key words: ON BEHALF OF ANOTHER PERSON. Installing and operating a radio station on behalf of someone else can only be done if the other person has an Amateur Certificate. Allusion to the ‘Advanced’ qualification is a misleading clue.

B-1-5-3 (B) Where a friend is not the holder of any type of radio operator certificate, you, as a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification, may, on behalf of your friend:
A modify and repair the radio apparatus but not install it
B not install, place in operation, modify, repair, maintain, or permit the operation of the radio apparatus
C install an amateur station, but not operate or permit the operation of the apparatus
D install and operate the radio apparatus, using your own call sign

key words: FRIEND, NOT the holder of a certificate. Installing or operating a station on behalf of an unlicensed person is prohibited.

B-1-5-4 (A) A radio amateur with Basic and Morse code qualifications may install an amateur station for another person:
A only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate
B only if the final power input does not exceed 100 watts
C only if the station is for use on one of the VHF bands
D only if the DC power input to the final stage does not exceed 200 watts

key words: FOR ANOTHER PERSON. Installing and operating a radio station on behalf of someone else can only be done if the other person has an Amateur Certificate. Allusions to qualification, power and bands are misleading clues.

examinations and so on

There is an exam.

B-1-4-2 (B) Which examination must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued?
A Advanced
B Basic
C Personality test
D Morse code

The Basic Qualification is the only examination needed to obtain a Certificate ( and a call sign ).

There may be fees for the examination.

B-1-22-1 (C) Which of these statements is not correct?

A An accredited volunteer examiner must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and Morse code qualifications

B The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Industry Canada office is $20 per qualification

C The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Industry Canada office is $5 per qualification

D An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination

Key words: NOT CORRECT. “The Radiocommunication Regulations prescribe a fee of $20 for each examination conducted by Industry Canada personnel. This fee is charged for each qualification being examined. Morse code sending and receiving are considered to be one examination. The same fees are applicable to re-examinations. Accredited examiners may not charge this fee; however, they may recover, from the candidate, the cost of administering an examination. There is no remittance, in whole or in part, of these costs to Industry Canada, as the Radio Regulations prescribed fee applies only to examinations conducted by Industry Canada staff.” (RIC-1, Examination Fees)

B-1-22-3 (A) The fee for taking examinations for amateur radio operator certificates by an accredited volunteer examiner is:

A to be negotiated between examiner and candidate

B always $20 per qualification

C always free of charge

D always $20 per visit regardless of the number of examinations

“The Radiocommunication Regulations prescribe a fee of $20 for each examination conducted by Industry Canada personnel. This fee is charged for each qualification being examined. Morse code sending and receiving are considered to be one examination. The same fees are applicable to re-examinations. Accredited examiners may not charge this fee; however, they may recover, from the candidate, the cost of administering an examination. There is no remittance, in whole or in part, of these costs to Industry Canada, as the Radio Regulations prescribed fee applies only to examinations conducted by Industry Canada staff.” (RIC-1, Examination Fees)

B-1-22-4 (D) The fee for taking amateur radio certificate examinations at an Industry Canada office is:
A $20 per visit, regardless of the number of qualification examinations B no charge for qualification examinations C $5 per qualification examination
D $20 per qualification

“The Radiocommunication Regulations prescribe a fee of $20 for each examination conducted by Industry Canada personnel. This fee is charged for each qualification being examined. Morse code sending and receiving are considered to be one examination. The same fees are applicable to re-examinations. Accredited examiners may not charge this fee; however, they may recover, from the candidate, the cost of administering an examination. There is no remittance, in whole or in part, of these costs to Industry Canada, as the Radio Regulations prescribed fee applies only to examinations conducted by Industry Canada staff.” (RIC-1, Examination Fees)

There are accommodations for disabilities and language.

B-1-22-2 (A) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A A disabled candidate must pass a normal amateur radio certificate examination before being granted any qualification
B A disabled candidate, taking a Morse code sending test, may be allowed to recite the examination text in Morse code sounds
C Examinations for disabled candidates may be given orally, or tailored to the candidate’s ability to complete the examination
D An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination

Key words: NOT CORRECT. “Accredited examiners may not exempt a candidate from the requirement for an examination. However, in the following specific cases, accredited examiners may provide accommodated testing when a candidate is unable to complete an examination due to a physical disability.” (RIC-1, Persons with Disabilities)

B-1-22-5 (D) Which of the following statements is false?
A A candidate who fails a written examination for lack of reading skills may be given an oral examination
B A candidate who fails a written examination due to not usually speaking English or French may be given an oral examination
C An examiner may request medical evidence from a practicing medical physician before accommodating testing
D A candidate with insufficient knowledge of English or French may be accompanied by an interpreter

“Candidates who have physical disabilities which prevent them from completing examinations in the normal manner should discuss their situation with their examiner to determine whether an accommodated testing procedure may be considered. The examiner may require that medical evidence from a practicing medical physician be provided. When a candidate fails a written examination because the language he or she normally uses is neither English nor French, or because academic limitations restrict the ability to read the questions properly, an oral examination may be given by the examiner”. (RIC-3, Candidates)

additional qualifications

There are additional qualifications.
They may be obtained in any order.

B-1-4-4 (C) After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic qualifications is issued, the holder may be examined for additional qualifications in the following order:
A Morse code after passing the Basic with Honours
B Advanced after passing Morse code
C any order
D Morse code after passing the Advanced

After obtaining the Basic, the Morse or Advanced qualifications can be obtained in any sequence.

There is a 5 WPM Morse code qualification.

B-1-4-5 (D) One Morse code qualification is available for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. It is:
A 7 w.p.m.
B 15 w.p.m.
C 12 w.p.m.
D 5 w.p.m.

The 12 and 15 words per minute Morse tests have long been discontinued. [ 15 w.p.m. discontinued in the 1990 Restructuration, 12 w.p.m. discontinued in May 2001. ]

There is an Advanced qualification, which allows you to
build transmitters

B-1-5-2 (B) The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate may design and build from scratch transmitting equipment for use in the amateur radio service provided that person has the:
A Basic qualification
B Advanced qualification
C Basic and Morse code qualification
D Morse code with Honours qualification

“Advanced Qualification: all amateur bands below 30 MHz, transmitter power of 1000 watts DC input, build and operate transmitting equipment, establish repeaters and club stations. Basic Qualification: all amateur bands above 30 MHz, power of 250 watts DC input, build and operate all station equipment, except for “home-made” transmitters. “Build” in the context of the Basic Certificate is limited to the assembly of commercially available transmitter kits of professional design.” (RIC-3, Privileges and Restrictions)

advanced qualification

The advanced qualification grants certain privileges:

B-1-8-6 (A) In order to install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is neither professionally designed nor commercially manufactured for use in the amateur service, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Operator’s Certificate, with a minimum of which qualifications?
A Basic and Advanced
B Basic with Honours
C Basic and Morse code
D Basic, Advanced and Morse code

“Advanced Qualification: all amateur bands below 30 MHz, transmitter power of 1000 watts DC input, build and operate transmitting equipment, establish repeaters and club stations. Basic Qualification: all amateur bands above 30 MHz, power of 250 watts DC input, build and operate all station equipment, except for “home-made” transmitters. “Build” in the context of the Basic Certificate is limited to the assembly of commercially available transmitter kits of professional design.” (RIC-3, Privileges and Restrictions)

B-1-8-5 (B) In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for an amateur radio club station, the radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of the following qualifications:
A Basic with Honours
B Basic and Advanced
C Basic, Advanced and Morse code
D Basic

key words: CLUB STATION. The Advanced Qualification grants 4 privileges: 1) install repeaters, 2) install club station, 3) build transmitters or amplifiers from scratch and 4) more output power. Morse has nothing to do with such privileges.

B-1-8-4 (D) In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for receiving and automatically retransmitting radiotelephone communications within the same frequency band, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of:
A Basic and Morse code qualifications
B Basic qualification
C Basic with Honours qualification
D Basic and Advanced qualifications

key word: RETRANSMITTING. The Advanced Qualification grants 4 privileges: 1) install repeaters, 2) install club station, 3) build transmitters or amplifiers from scratch and 4) more output power. Morse has nothing to do with such privileges.

{L05} Regulations, Part II: Standards, Restrictions, Identification.

nature and content of communications

Don’t say anything too important.

Generally, the rule is that “you may not do things that are useful for people”

B-1-20-1 (A) What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country?
A Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative unimportance
B Messages of any type, if the foreign country allows third-party communications with Canada
C Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature
D Messages of any type

Regulations do not permit just “any type” of message. Messages need be “of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character of relative unimportance”.

B-1-20-2 (D) The operator of an amateur station shall ensure that:
A communications are exchanged only with commercial stations
B all communications are conducted in secret code
C charges are properly applied to all third-party communications
D communications are limited to messages of a technical or personal nature

Regulations do not permit just “any type” of message. Messages need be “of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character of relative unimportance”.

B-1-20-3 (D) Which of the following is not a provision of the ITU Radio Regulations which apply to Canadian radio amateurs?

A It is forbidden to transmit international messages on behalf of third parties, unless those countries make special arrangements

B Radiocommunications between countries shall be forbidden, if the administration of one of the countries objects

C Administrations shall take such measures as they judge necessary to verify the operational and technical qualifications of amateurs

D Transmissions between countries shall not include any messages of a technical nature, or remarks of a personal character

key word: NOT. Amateur Radio is precisely the exchange of messages of a technical or personal nature.

… except in the context of a disaster, or when genuflecting to the government.

B-1-11-9 (A) Messages from recognized public service agencies may be handled by amateur radio stations:

A during peace time and civil emergencies and exercises

B using Morse code only

C when Industry Canada has issued a special authorization

D only on the 7 and 14 MHz bands

Messages from organizations such as the Red Cross or Civil Protection can be handled by amateurs at all times.

So, for example…

Business communications are not allowed.

B-1-7-11 (C) In the amateur radio service, business communications:
A are only permitted if they are for the safety of life or immediate protection of property
B are not prohibited by regulation
C are not permitted under any circumstance
D are permitted on some bands

Business-related communications are NOT allowed on amateur bands. RIC-3 states “47. A person who operates radio apparatus in the amateur radio service may only (c) be engaged in communication that does not include the transmission of i) music, (ii) commercially recorded material, (iii) programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking, or (iv) radiocommunications in support of industrial, business or professional activities.” [ Until July 2007, RIC-7 seemed to make an exception for relief operations in a disaster while regular services are overloaded or unavailable. Prior to 2000, an amateur could communicate any message in a real or simulated emergency. ]

B-1-7-1 (D) Which of the following cannot be discussed on an amateur club net?
A Recreation planning
B Code practice planning
C Emergency planning
D Business planning

key word: CANNOT. Business-related communications are NOT allowed on amateur bands (except for relief operations in a disaster while regular services are overloaded or unavailable).

Music is not allowed.

B-1-7-8 (B) What should you do to keep you station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station?
A Adjust your transceiver noise blanker
B Turn down the volume of background audio
C Turn up the volume of your transmitter
D Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength

Retransmitting programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking is specifically prohibited in the Radiocommunication Regulations.

General information broadcasts are not allowed.

B-1-7-2 (C) When is a radio amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general public?
A Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour
B Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes
C Never
D Only when the operator is being paid

key word: BROADCAST. Amateurs are not allowed to broadcast to the general public.

Secret codes are never allowed. The government wants to know what you’re saying.

B-1-7-6 (C) When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit an encoded message?
A During contests
B When transmitting above 450 MHz
C Only when the encoding or cipher is not secret
D During a declared communications emergency

Article 47 of the Radiocommunication Regulations states “A person who operates radio apparatus in the amateur radio service may only (b) use a code or cipher that is not secret”.

B-1-7-9 (D) The transmission of a secret code by the operator of an amateur station:
A is permitted for contests
B must be approved by Industry Canada
C is permitted for third-party traffic
D is not permitted

key words: SECRET, OBSCURE. Specifically prohibited in the Radiocommunication Regulations.

B-1-7-7 (C) What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
A They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to government monitoring stations
B Only “10 codes” are permitted
C They may be used if the signals or codes are not secret
D There are no restrictions

key words: SECRET, OBSCURE. Specifically prohibited in the Radiocommunication Regulations.

deception is not allowed

B-1-7-3 (B) When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be transmitted?
A When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy
B Never
C When operating a beacon transmitter in a “fox hunt” exercise
D When playing a harmless “practical joke”

key word: DECEPTIVE. False or fraudulent messages or distress signals are infractions to the Radiocommunications Act.

Q-codes are allowed, because they are not secret.

B-1-7-10 (C) A radio amateur may be engaged in communication which include the transmission of:
A radiocommunication in support of industrial, business, or professional activities
B commercially recorded material
C Q signals
D programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking

key words: BROADCASTING, BUSINESS, COMMERCIALLY. Support of business/professional activities OR the retransmission of broadcasts are specifically prohibited in the Radiocommunication Regulations. “Q codes” are internationally recognized abbreviations used by Amateurs.

B-1-7-5 (C) You wish to develop and use a new digital encoding technique to transmit data over amateur radio spectrum. Under what conditions is this permissible?
A When it is used for commercial traffic
B When it includes sending the amateur station’s call sign
C When the encoding technique is published in the public domain
D When it is used for music streaming content

Article 47 of the Radiocommunication Regulations states “A person who operates radio apparatus in the amateur radio service may only (b) use a code or cipher that is not secret”.

And in general, anything like a “broadcast” is not allowed.

One-way transmissions are allowed for:

B-1-7-4 (B) Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service?
A Morse code practice
B Broadcasts intended for the general public
C Radio control commands to model craft
D Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station

key words: MAY NOT. Amateurs are not allowed to broadcast to the general public. Remote-Control, brief tests and code practice are allowed activities.

B-1-8-2 (C) Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?
A HF station
B VHF station
C Beacon station
D Repeater station

Only three types of one-way communications are allowed: 1) Beacons (automated one-way stations used to assess propagation conditions), 2) remote control of model craft and 3) brief test transmissions.

who’s in charge

the “station owner” and the “control operator” are both responsible for operation of a station.

B-1-9-1 (C) Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station?
A The person who owns the station equipment
B Only the control operator
C Both the control operator and the station owner
D Only the station owner who is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate

Both the licensee and the control operator ( a person other than the licensee who the owner may have left in charge of the station ) are responsible for proper operation of the station.

B-1-9-2 (D) If you transmit from another amateur’s station, who is responsible for its proper operation?
A You
B The station owner, unless the station records show that you were the control operator at the time
C The station owner
D Both of you

Both the licensee and the control operator ( a person other than the licensee who the owner may have left in charge of the station ) are responsible for proper operation of the station.

B-1-9-3 (A) What is your responsibility as a station owner?
A You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in accordance with the regulations
B You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon request
C You must be present whenever the station is operated
D You must notify Industry Canada if another amateur acts as the control operator

Both the licensee and the control operator ( a person other than the licensee who the owner may have left in charge of the station ) are responsible for proper operation of the station.

the control operator must be licensed amateur, and they must be there to control the operation of the station

B-1-9-4 (A) Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?
A Any qualified amateur chosen by the station owner
B Any person over 21 years of age with a Basic Qualification
C Any person over 21 years of age with Basic and Morse code qualifications
D Any person over 21 years of age

The Control Operator must hold an Amateur certificate.

B-1-9-5 (D) When must an amateur station have a control operator?
A A control operator is not needed
B Whenever the station receiver is operated
C Only when training another amateur
D Whenever the station is transmitting

The holder of an Amateur certificate, the ‘Control Operator’, must be in charge of the station whenever it is on the air.

B-1-9-6 (B) When an amateur station is transmitting, where must its control operator be?
A Anywhere within 50 km of the station location
B At the station’s control point
C Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter
D At the station’s entrance, to control entry to the room

The holder of an Amateur certificate, the ‘Control Operator’, must be in charge of the station whenever it is on the air.

the control operator may permit anyone to use the station under supervision, but not without supervision

B-1-9-8 (A) The owner of an amateur station may:
A permit any person to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of the amateur operator certificate
B permit anyone to take part in communications only if prior written permission is received from Industry Canada
C permit anyone to use the station without restrictions
D permit anyone to use the station and take part in communications

The holder of an Amateur certificate, the ‘Control Operator’, must be in charge of the station whenever it is on the air.

B-1-9-9 (A) Which of the following statements is correct?
A Any person may operate an amateur station under supervision, and in the presence of, a person holding appropriate qualifications
B A person, holding only Basic Qualification, may operate another station on 14.2 MHz
C Radio amateurs may permit any person to operate the station without supervision
D Any person may operate a station in the amateur radio service

A Basic Qualification alone does not grant privileges below 30 MHz. A ‘Control Operator’ must hold an amateur certificate and supervise the station.

B-1-9-7 (C) Why can’t family members without qualifications transmit using your amateur station if they are alone with your equipment?
A They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q signals
B They must first know the right frequencies and emission modes for transmitting
C They must hold suitable amateur radio qualifications before they are allowed to be control operators
D They must not use your equipment without your permission

The holder of an Amateur certificate, the ‘Control Operator’, must be in charge of the station whenever it is on the air. Your certificate does not grant spouse, siblings or relatives privileges to be ‘Control Operators’ ( i.e., use the station in your absence ).

B-1-14-2 (B) If you let an unqualified third party use your amateur station, what must you do at your station’s control point?
A You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made in countries which have no third party communications
B You must continuously monitor and supervise the third party’s participation
C You must key the transmitter and make the station identification
D You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz

This is a catch. The requirement for a ‘Control Operator’ comes first before the question of ‘Third Party communications’.

The privileges of the station operator, if more restrictive, apply.

B-1-15-1 (D) If you let another amateur with additional qualifications than yours control your station, what operating privileges are allowed?
A Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications
B All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications
C All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications
D Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications

Given the owner of the station and the control operator are JOINTLY responsible, they only have in common the lesser of the privileges. Quoted from a 1980 TRC-25: “57) a licensee may permit another certificate holder to operate his station using only such frequencies and emission modes as the licensee is qualified to use or, if the person is not as qualified as the licensee, only such frequencies and emission modes as the person is qualified to use”. Interpretation: a licensed visiting operator may only operate the station within your or his privileges, whichever are lower.

The privileges of the control operator, when more-restrictive, apply

B-1-15-2 (C) If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who has additional qualifications to yours, what operating privileges are you allowed?
A All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications
B All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications
C Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications
D Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications

Given the owner of the station and the control operator are JOINTLY responsible, they only have in common the lesser of the privileges. Quoted from a 1980 TRC-25: “57) a licensee may permit another certificate holder to operate his station using only such frequencies and emission modes as the licensee is qualified to use or, if the person is not as qualified as the licensee, only such frequencies and emission modes as the person is qualified to use”. Interpretation: a licensed visiting operator may only operate the station within your or his privileges, whichever are lower.

what is allowed and not allowed

don’t transmit out-of-band

B-1-3-1 (D) Out of amateur band transmissions:
A must be identified with your call sign
B are permitted
C are permitted for short tests only
D are prohibited - penalties could be assessed to the control operator

Out of band transmissions contravene the regulations of the Amateur service.

false or deceptive or fraudulent signals

B-1-3-2 (D) If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word “MAYDAY,” what is this called?
A A traditional greeting in May
B An emergency test transmission
C Nothing special: “MAYDAY” has no meaning in an emergency
D False or deceptive signals

key word: PRETEND. This becomes a ‘false or fraudulent’ distress signal. It is an offence punishable under the Radiocommunication Act.

B-1-3-3 (D) A person found guilty of transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering with, or obstructing any radio communication, without lawful cause, may be liable, on summary conviction, to a penalty of:
A a fine of $10 000 B a prison term of two years C a fine of $1 000
D a fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term of one year, or both

False distress signals and interference are punishable by a fine not exceeding $5000 or a prison term not exceeding one year OR BOTH. (Radiocommunication Act)

There may be inspections

B-1-3-6 (B) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A The person in charge of a place entered by a radio inspector shall give the inspector information that the inspector requests
B A radio inspector may enter a dwelling without the consent of the occupant and without a warrant
C Where entry is refused, and is necessary to perform his duties under the Act, a radio inspector may obtain a warrant
D In executing a warrant, a radio inspector shall not use force, unless accompanied by a peace officer, and force is authorized

key words: DWELLING, NOT correct. A radio inspector may NOT enter a dwelling (house) without consent AND without a warrant. (Radiocommunication Act)

radios may only be used in the bands for which they are certified

B-1-6-6 (C) Some VHF and UHF FM radios purchased for use in the amateur service can also be programmed to communicate on frequencies used for the land mobile service. Under what conditions is this permissible?

A The equipment has a RF power output of 2 watts or less

B The equipment is used in remote areas north of 60 degrees latitude

C The radio is certified under the proper Radio Standard Specification for use in Canada and licensed by Industry Canada on the specified frequencies

D The radio operator has a Restricted Operator’s Certificate

Article 31 of the Radiocommunication Regulations states “A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained within the tolerances set out in the applicable standards”. The Radiocommunication Act states “4. (1) No person shall, except under and in accordance with a radio authorization, install, operate or possess radio apparatus, other than (a) radio apparatus exempted by or under regulations…”.

harmful interference:

Harmful interference is interference that is harmful.

B-1-10-1 (A) What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?
A Harmful interference
B Interrupted CW
C Transponder signals
D Unidentified transmissions

“Harmful Interference”: “Adverse effect of electromagnetic energy…that endangers the use of a safety-related radiocommunication system… OR significantly degrades, or obstructs or repeatedly interrupts the use of radio apparatus or radio-sensitive equipment.” (Radiocommunication Act)

B-1-10-5 (D) What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service?
A Intentional interference
B Adjacent interference
C Disruptive interference
D Harmful interference

“Harmful Interference”: “Adverse effect of electromagnetic energy…that endangers the use of a safety-related radiocommunication system… OR significantly degrades, or obstructs or repeatedly interrupts the use of radio apparatus or radio-sensitive equipment.” (Radiocommunication Act)

You may not transmit harmful interference, and will be prevented from doing so by the powers that be.

B-1-10-2 (A) When may you deliberately interfere with another station’s communications?
A Never
B Only if the station is operating illegally
C Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are using
D You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it can’t be helped during crowded band conditions

Deliberate harmful interference is ALWAYS prohibited.

B-1-10-9 (D) Which of the following is not correct? The operator of an amateur station:
A shall not cause harmful interference to a station in another service which has primary use of that band
B may conduct technical experiments using the station apparatus
C may make trials or tests, except if there is a possibility of interference to other stations
D may make trials or tests, even though there is a possibility of interfering with other stations

key words: NOT CORRECT. Conducting tests which may result in ‘harmful interference’ is prohibited.

B-1-10-6 (A) Where interference to the reception of radiocommunications is caused by the operation of an amateur station:
A the Minister may require that the necessary steps for the prevention of the interference be taken by the radio amateur
B the amateur station operator is not obligated to take any action
C the amateur station operator may continue to operate without restrictions
D the amateur station operator may continue to operate and the necessary steps can be taken when the amateur operator can afford it

“The Department shall order the persons in control of the equipment to cease or modify operation until such time it can be operated without causing interference”. (Radiocommunication Regulations)

Also, share the air

B-1-10-4 (B) What rule applies if two amateurs want to use the same frequency?
A Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2
B Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency
C The station operator with a lesser qualification must yield the frequency to an operator of higher qualification
D The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output

Common-sense and respect are expected out of amateurs in sharing radio spectrum. No organization, qualification or activity can claim exclusive and priority use of a given frequency.

You may operate anywhere in Canada.

B-1-8-3 (C) Amateur radio operators may install or operate radio apparatus:
A at the address which is on record at Industry Canada and at one other location
B at the address which is on record at Industry Canada and in two mobiles
C at any location in Canada
D only at the address which is on record at Industry Canada

Yes, ANYWHERE in Canada but if you change your address permanently, you must notify Industry Canada within 30 DAYS.

B-1-8-1 (A) Where may the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station in Canada?
A Anywhere in Canada
B Anywhere in Canada during times of emergency
C Only at the address shown on Industry Canada records
D Anywhere in your call sign prefix area

Yes, ANYWHERE in Canada but if you change your address permanently, you must notify Industry Canada within 30 DAYS.

There are no payments for communication allowed.

B-1-12-1 (A) What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station?
A No payment of any kind is allowed
B Donation of amateur equipment
C Donation of equipment repairs
D Any amount agreed upon in advance

“A person who operates in the Amateur Radio service shall do so without demanding or accepting remuneration in any form”. (Radiocommunication Regulations)

B-1-12-3 (B) The operator of an amateur station:
A may accept a gift or gratuity in lieu of remuneration for any message that the person transmits or receives
B shall not demand or accept remuneration in any form, in respect of a radiocommunication that the person transmits or receives
C shall charge no less than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives D shall charge no more than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives

“A person who operates in the Amateur Radio service shall do so without demanding or accepting remuneration in any form”. (Radiocommunication Regulations)

So, given an understanding of the above, spot the nonsense:

B-1-6-4 (A) Which of the following statements is not correct?

A An amateur radio operator transmitting unnecessary or offensive signals does not violate accepted practice

B Except for a certified radio amateur operating within authorized amateur radio allocations, no person shall possess or operate any device for the purpose of amplifying the output power of a licence-exempt radio apparatus

C A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained to the Radiocommunication Regulations tolerances

D A person may operate an amateur radio station when the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service

key words: NOT CORRECT. Article 32 of the Radiocommunication Regulations which said “A person may operate radio apparatus only to transmit a non-superfluous signal or a signal containing non-profane or non-obscene radiocommunications “ was repealed in 2011 as inconsistent with the terms of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms. Hopefully, amateurs will continue to abide by that rule.

B-1-6-3 (B) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A A radio amateur may not operate, or permit to be operated, a radio apparatus which he knows is not performing to the Radiocommunication Regulations
B A radio amateur may use a linear amplifier to amplify the output of a licence-exempt transmitter outside any amateur radio allocations
C A considerate operator does not transmit unnecessary signals
D A courteous operator refrains from using offensive language

Key words: NOT CORRECT. Using an amplifier on what is normally a license-exempt transmitter is illegal: e.g., a Citizens Band radio. Article 31 of the Radiocommunication Regulations states “A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained within the tolerances set out in the applicable standards”. Article 32 of the Radiocommunication Regulations which said “A person may operate radio apparatus only to transmit a non-superfluous signal or a signal containing non-profane or non-obscene radiocommunications “ was repealed in 2011 as inconsistent with the terms of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms.

B-1-6-5 (B) Which of the following statements is not correct? A person may operate radio apparatus, authorized in the amateur service:

A except for the amplification of the output power of licence-exempt radio apparatus operating outside authorized amateur radio service allocations

B on aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies

C only where the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service

D only where the apparatus is maintained within the performance standards set by Industry Canada regulations and policies

key words: NOT CORRECT. Amateurs are only allowed on bands assigned to the Amateur service.

The ITU, and the USA reciprocal operating agreeement

The ITU exists. Our rules follow their rules.

B-1-20-5 (A) In addition to complying with the Radiocommunication Act and Regulations, Canadian radio amateurs must also comply with the regulations of the:
A International Telecommunication Union
B American Radio Relay League
C Radio Amateurs of Canada Inc.
D International Amateur Radio Union

The ITU ( an agency of the United Nations ) edicts global rules to which Canada adheres.

The Americas, including Canada, are in Region 2.

B-1-21-5 (D) Canada is located in ITU Region:
A Region 1
B Region 3
C Region 4
D Region 2

The Americas are in ITU Region 2. Australia and Southeast Asia are in ITU Region 3.

B-1-21-1 (C) In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Canada?
A Region 3
B Region 1
C Region 2
D Region 4

The Americas are in ITU Region 2. Australia and Southeast Asia are in ITU Region 3.

Asia is Region 3.

B-1-21-4 (D) Australia, Japan, and Southeast Asia are in which ITU Region?
A Region 1
B Region 2
C Region 4
D Region 3

The Americas are in ITU Region 2. Australia and Southeast Asia are in ITU Region 3.

As a Canadian, you don’t need an American license.

B-1-14-10 (A) Which of the following is not correct? While operating in Canada a radio amateur licensed by the Government of the United States must:
A obtain a Canadian amateur certificate before operating in Canada
B add to his call sign the Canadian call sign prefix for the geographic location of the station
C qualify his identification when operating phone by adding to the call sign the word “mobile” or “portable” or when operating Morse code by adding a slash “/“
D identify with the call sign assigned by the FCC

key word: NOT. Canada and the US have a reciprocal agreement which permits amateurs from one country to operate in the other country. While in Canada, the US amateur identifies with his call sign, the qualifier “mobile” or “portable” and the prefix of the Canadian province/territory. [ In the US, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) regulates radio ]

When you’re in the USA or nearyby, American rules apply; not international rules.

B-1-21-3 (D) A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station 7 kilometres (4 miles) offshore from the coast of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?
A Those applicable to Canadian radio amateurs
B ITU Region 1
C ITU Region 2
D Those applicable to US radio amateurs

key words: SEVEN KILOMETRES FROM THE COAST. This close to the shore is not yet considered “international waters”. When operating within a country or within territorial waters (generally, 12 nautical miles or 22 kilometres from the shore), the regulations of the specific country apply.

B-1-21-2 (B) A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station in the state of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?
A ITU Region 1
B Those applicable to US radio amateurs
C ITU Region 2
D ITU Region 3

When operating within a country or within territorial waters (generally, 12 nautical miles or 22 kilometres from the shore), the regulations of the specific country apply.

third-party traffic

Third-party communications are where there’s somebody who’s not licensed also participating in the call.

B-1-14-6 (C) Amateur third party communications is:
A a simultaneous communication between three operators
B none of these answers
C the transmission of non-commercial or personal messages to or on behalf of a third party
D the transmission of commercial or secret messages

‘Third-Party communication’: a message originating from or intended for a person other than the two amateurs in a radio contact. Originally, countries needed to sign agreements permitting exchanges of messages on behalf of third parties. Nowadays, each country states its position: “Any foreign administration may permit its amateur stations to communicate on behalf of third parties without having to enter into any special arrangements with Canada. Canada does not prohibit international communications on behalf of third parties. (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)”

It’s only allowed if it’s allowed.

B-1-14-5 (A) International communications on behalf of third parties may be transmitted by an amateur station only if:
A the countries concerned have authorized such communications
B English or French is used to identify the station at the end of each transmission
C the countries for which the traffic is intended have registered their consent to such communications with the ITU
D radiotelegraphy is used

‘Third-Party communication’: a message originating from or intended for a person other than the two amateurs in a radio contact. Originally, countries needed to sign agreements permitting exchanges of messages on behalf of third parties. Nowadays, each country states its position: “Any foreign administration may permit its amateur stations to communicate on behalf of third parties without having to enter into any special arrangements with Canada. Canada does not prohibit international communications on behalf of third parties. (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)”

B-1-14-3 (A) Radio amateurs may use their stations to transmit international communications on behalf of a third party only if:
A such communications have been authorized by the other country concerned
B the amateur station has received written authorization from Industry Canada to pass third party traffic
C the communication is transmitted by secret code
D prior remuneration has been received

‘Third-Party communication’: a message originating from or intended for a person other than the two amateurs in a radio contact. Originally, countries needed to sign agreements permitting exchanges of messages on behalf of third parties. Nowadays, each country states its position: “Any foreign administration may permit its amateur stations to communicate on behalf of third parties without having to enter into any special arrangements with Canada. Canada does not prohibit international communications on behalf of third parties. (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)”

B-1-14-11 (B) Which of the following statements is not correct? A Canadian radio amateur may, on amateur frequencies,:
A communicate with a similar station of a country which has not notified ITU that it objects to such communications
B pass third-party traffic with all duly licensed amateur stations in any country which is a member of the ITU
C pass messages originating from or destined to the United States Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
D pass messages originating from or destined to the Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS)

key word: NOT. ‘Third-Party communication’: a message originating from or intended for a person other than the two amateurs in a radio contact. Third party communications can only be exchanged with countries which permit such communication. CFARS (Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service) and MARS (United States Military Auxiliary Radio System) are not considered ‘Third Party communications’. [ MARS has been renamed Military Auxiliary Radio System on 2009 12 23 by the US Department of Defence. ]

you need to find out for which countries it’s allowed.

B-1-14-1 (D) If a non-amateur friend is using your station to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your friend, what should you do?
A Since you can talk to foreign amateurs, your friend may keep talking as long as you are the control operator
B Report the incident to the foreign amateur’s government
C Stop all discussions and quickly sign off
D Have your friend wait until you determine from the foreign station if their administration permits third-party traffic

“Any foreign administration may permit its amateur stations to communicate on behalf of third parties without having to enter into any special arrangements with Canada. Canada does not prohibit international communications on behalf of third parties. International third-party communication in case of emergencies or disaster relief is expressly permitted unless specifically prohibited by a foreign administration.” (RIC-3, Third-party Agreements and Arrangements)

Even in emergencies, it’s only allowed unless it’s not allowed

B-1-14-7 (B) International third party amateur radio communication in case of emergencies or disaster relief is expressly permitted unless:
A internet service is working well in the foreign country involved
B specifically prohibited by the foreign administration concerned
C satellite communication can be originated in the disaster area
D the foreign administration is in a declared state of war

“Any foreign administration may permit its amateur stations to communicate on behalf of third parties without having to enter into any special arrangements with Canada. Canada does not prohibit international communications on behalf of third parties. International third-party communication in case of emergencies or disaster relief is expressly permitted unless specifically prohibited by a foreign administration.” (RIC-3, Third-party Agreements and Arrangements)

CFARS and MARS don’t count as third parties.

B-1-14-8 (C) One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message is originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur:
A messages addressed to points within Canada
B all messages received from Canadian stations
C messages originated from Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS)
D messages that are handled within a local network

key word: NOT. CFARS (Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service) and MARS (United States Military Auxiliary Radio System) are not considered ‘Third Party communications’. [ MARS has been renamed Military Auxiliary Radio System on 2009 12 23 by the US Department of Defence. ]

B-1-14-9 (D) One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message may be originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur:
A all messages originated by Canadian amateur stations
B messages addressed to points within Canada from the United States
C messages that are handled within local networks during a simulated emergency exercise
D messages that originate from the United States Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

key word: NOT. CFARS (Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service) and MARS (United States Military Auxiliary Radio System) are not considered ‘Third Party communications’. [ MARS has been renamed Military Auxiliary Radio System on 2009 12 23 by the US Department of Defence. ]

forbidden countries

you may not communicate with stations in countries where communicating with stations is forbidden by that country

B-1-14-4 (C) A person operating a Canadian amateur station is forbidden to communicate with amateur stations of another country:
A until he has properly identified his station
B unless he is passing third-party traffic
C when that country has notified the International Telecommunication Union that it objects to such communications
D without written permission from Industry Canada

key word: FORBIDDEN. Certain countries do not allow amateur communications within their borders; they must notify the ITU that they forbid such communications.

secondary users

There is such a thing as secondary use.

B-1-10-3 (B) If the regulations say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean?
A Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any interference caused by primary users
B Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users
C Nothing special: all users of a frequency band have equal rights to operate
D Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during emergencies

Primary User and Secondary User are statuses assigned to different services when frequency bands are allocated by Industry Canada. “Stations of a secondary service: a) shall not cause harmful interference to stations of primary service, b) cannot claim protection from harmful interference from stations of a primary service”. For example, on 430-450 MHz and 902-928 MHz, the Amateur Radio Service has secondary status behind other services.

We are secondary users on 430-450 MHz.

B-1-10-7 (D) Radio amateur operation must not cause interference to other radio services operating in which of the following bands?
A 7.0 to 7.1 MHz
B 144.0 to 148.0 MHz
C 14.0 to 14.2 MHz
D 430.0 to 450.0 MHz

Primary User and Secondary User are statuses assigned to different services when frequency bands are allocated by Industry Canada. “Stations of a secondary service: a) shall not cause harmful interference to stations of primary service, b) cannot claim protection from harmful interference from stations of a primary service”. For example, on 430-450 MHz and 902-928 MHz, the Amateur Radio Service has secondary status behind other services.

We are secondary users on 902-928 MHz.

There are apparently lots of users there.

B-1-10-8 (D) Radio amateur operations are not ARE NOT protected from interference caused by another service operating in which of the following frequency bands?
A 144 to 148 MHz
B 222 to 225 MHz
C 50 to 54 MHz
D 902 to 928 MHz

Primary User and Secondary User are statuses assigned to different services when frequency bands are allocated by Industry Canada. “Stations of a secondary service: a) shall not cause harmful interference to stations of primary service, b) cannot claim protection from harmful interference from stations of a primary service”. For example, on 430-450 MHz and 902-928 MHz, the Amateur Radio Service has secondary status behind other services.

B-1-10-10 (D) Which of these amateur bands may be heavily occupied by licence exempt devices?
A 3.5 to 4.0 MHz
B 430 to 450 MHz
C 135.7 to 137.8 kHz
D 902 to 928 MHz

135.7 to 137.8 kHz Fixed (primary), Maritime mobile (primary), Amateur (secondary). 3.5 to 4.0 MHz Amateur (primary). 144 to 148 MHz Amateur (primary). 430 to 450 MHz Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary). 902 to 928 MHz Fixed (primary), Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary), also designated for industrial, scientific and medical (ISM) applications. 1240 to 1300 MHz Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary). 2300 to 2450 MHz Fixed (primary), Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary), also designated for industrial, scientific and medical (ISM) applications. (Canadian Table of Frequency Allocations)

We are secondary users on 2300 to 2450 MHz.

B-1-10-11 (A) The amateur radio service is authorized to share a portion of what Industrial Scientific Medical (ISM) band that is heavily used by licence exempt devices?
A 2300 to 2450 MHz
B 430 to 450 MHz
C 144 to 148 MHz
D 1240 to 1300 MHz

135.7 to 137.8 kHz Fixed (primary), Maritime mobile (primary), Amateur (secondary). 3.5 to 4.0 MHz Amateur (primary). 144 to 148 MHz Amateur (primary). 430 to 450 MHz Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary). 902 to 928 MHz Fixed (primary), Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary), also designated for industrial, scientific and medical (ISM) applications. 1240 to 1300 MHz Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary). 2300 to 2450 MHz Fixed (primary), Radiolocation (primary), Amateur (secondary), also designated for industrial, scientific and medical (ISM) applications. (Canadian Table of Frequency Allocations)

distress

“Distress” refers to situations threatening life or property.

There are exceptions to the band privileges rules for distress messages.

For instance, if you hear an unanswered distress call, you are allowed to answer, rules notwithstanding.

B-1-11-3 (C) If you hear an unanswered distress signal on an amateur band where you do not have privileges to communicate:
A you may offer assistance after contacting Industry Canada for permission to do so
B you may not offer assistance
C you should offer assistance
D you may offer assistance using international Morse code only

key word: UNANSWERED. You may exceed your normal privileges to help a station in distress.

You are, of course, allowed to “broadcast” distress messages (to anybody and everybody). (Otherwise, you may not “broadcast”.)

B-1-11-4 (B) In the amateur radio service, it is permissible to broadcast:
A programming that originates from a broadcast undertaking
B radio communications required for the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property
C music
D commercially recorded material

Music, commercially recorded material and broadcasts are not permitted. Amateur radio can be used for distress communications.

In fact, if you are in distress, you are allowed to do anything at all, rules and privileges notwithstanding:

B-1-11-5 (D) An amateur radio station in distress may:
A only use radiocommunication bands for which the operator is qualified to use
B use any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels
C only Morse code communications on internationally recognized emergency channels
D any means of radiocommunication

You may exceed your normal privileges if you are in distress.

B-1-11-7 (B) During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a station in distress?
A 200 watts PEP
B There are no limitations for a station in distress
C 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the night
D 1500 watts PEP

You may exceed your normal privileges if you are in distress.

B-1-11-10 (C) It is permissible to interfere with the working of another station if:
A you both wish to contact the same station
B the other station is interfering with your transmission
C your station is directly involved with a distress situation
D the other station is not operating according to the Radiocommunication Regulations

key words: DIRECTLY INVOLVED with distress. This is the only acceptable excuse for interference.

disasters and emergencies

Disasters and emergencies are different than distress.

In distress, the rules go out the window.

During disasters, the rules are still in effect.

You still may not transmit out of band.

B-1-11-1 (B) Amateur radio stations may communicate:
A with any station involved in a real or simulated emergency
B only with other amateur stations
C with anyone who uses international Morse code
D with non amateur stations

Article 47 of the Radiocommunication Regulations states “A person who operates radio apparatus in the amateur radio service may only (a) communicate with a radio station that operates in the amateur radio service”. Article 48 further states “In a real or simulated emergency, a person operating radio apparatus in the amateur radio service may only communicate with a radio station that is in the amateur radio service in order to transmit a message that relates to the real or simulated emergency on behalf of a person, government or relief organization”. A notice published in February 2000 invalidated this statement “In a real or simulated emergency, the operator of an amateur station may communicate any message that relates to that emergency on behalf of any person, government or relief organization”.

B-1-11-2 (A) During relief operations in the days following a disaster, when may an amateur use his equipment to communicate on frequencies outside amateur bands?
A Never
B When relaying messages on behalf of government agencies
C When messages are destined to agencies without amateur radio support
D When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted

“An operator of an amateur station may operate within the frequency bands set out in the attached Schedules I, II and III in accordance with the operator’s qualifications identified for the specified band”. (RBR-4, Frequency Bands and Qualifications)

you may pass “important” communications (that would ordinarily be handled by commercial services) in a disaster.

B-1-11-6 (D) During a disaster, when may an amateur station make transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations?
A Never: only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster
B When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient
C Only when the local emergency net is activated
D When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted

Amateurs have a long history of handling communication when normal systems (e.g., telephone) are unavailable. When communications systems are restored, amateurs must return to the “no business” rule.

During a disaster, there are amateur disaster nets that will be doing most of the heavy lifting. Work with them.

B-1-11-8 (B) During a disaster:

A use any United Nations approved frequency

B most communications are handled by nets using predetermined frequencies in amateur bands. Operators not directly involved with disaster communications are requested to avoid making unnecessary transmissions on or near frequencies being used for disaster communications

C use only frequencies in the 80 metre band

D use only frequencies in the 40 metre band

A ‘net’ (short for network) is a time and frequency where a given activity is conducted. Traffic is directed by a ‘net control station’.

privacy and exceptions

there is an expectation of privacy of radio communications other than amateur communications

B-1-12-2 (B) Radiocommunications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used:
A during peacetime civil emergencies
B if it is transmitted by an amateur station
C if transmitted by any station using the international Morse code
D if transmitted in English or French

“No person shall make use of or divulge a radio-based communication” except if it originates from a broadcaster ( e.g., the CBC) or an Amateur Radio station. (Radiocommunication Act)

But there are exceptions to the privacy rule

B-1-12-4 (D) Which of the following is not an exception from the penalties under the Act, for divulging, intercepting or using information obtained through radiocommunication, other than broadcasting?
A Where it is for the purpose of preserving or protecting property, or for the prevention of harm to a person
B Where it is for the purpose of giving evidence in a criminal or civil proceeding in which persons are required to give evidence
C Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the purpose of international or national defence or security
D Where it is to provide information for a journalist

key words: NOT AN EXCEPTION. Protecting property, preventing harm, giving evidence and national security are valid exceptions to the privacy of communications.

{L15} Regulations, Part III: Technical rules, RF Exposure, Antenna Structures.

band allocations

160 m is 1.8 to 2

B-1-15-6 (C) In Canada, the 160 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
A 2.0 to 2.25 MHz
B 2.25 to 2.5 MHz
C 1.8 to 2.0 MHz
D 1.5 to 2.0 MHz

160 metres: 1.8 to 2.0 MHz. With wavelength in metres being 300 divided by frequency in megahertz: the band covers 167 metres to 150 metres.

80 metres is 3.5 to 4

B-1-15-5 (C) In Canada, the 75/80 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
A 4.0 to 4.5 MHz
B 4.5 to 5.0 MHz
C 3.5 to 4.0 MHz
D 3.0 to 3.5 MHz

80 metres: 3.5 to 4.0 MHz. Some amateurs refer to the upper part, say 3.8 MHz and up, as 75 metre. With wavelength in metres being 300 divided by frequency in megahertz: the band covers 86 metres to 75 metres.

40 metres is 7 to 7.3

B-1-15-7 (C) In Canada, the 40 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
A 6.0 to 6.3 MHz
B 7.7 to 8.0 MHz
C 7.0 to 7.3 MHz
D 6.5 to 6.8 MHz

40 metres: 7.0 to 7.3 MHz. With wavelength in metres being 300 divided by frequency in megahertz: the band covers 43 metres to 41 metres.

20 meters is 14 to 14.35

B-1-15-8 (D) In Canada, the 20 meter amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
A 13.500 to 14.000 MHz
B 15.000 to 15.750 MHz
C 16.350 to 16.830 MHz
D 14.000 to 14.350 MHz

20 metres: 14.00 to 14.35 MHz. With wavelength in metres being 300 divided by frequency in megahertz: the band covers 21.4 metres to 20.9 metres.

15 metres is in the vicinity of 21 meg

B-1-15-9 (C) In Canada, the 15 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
A 14.000 to 14.350 MHz
B 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
C 21.000 to 21.450 MHz
D 18.068 to 18.168 MHz

15-metre: 21.00 to 21.45 MHz. With wavelength in metres being 300 divided by frequency in megahertz: the band covers 14.3 metres to 14.0 metres.

10 metres is 28 MHz

B-1-15-10 (D) In Canada, the 10 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
A 24.890 to 24.990 MHz
B 21.000 to 21.450 MHz
C 50.000 to 54.000 MHz
D 28.000 to 29.700 MHz

10 metres: 28.0 to 29.7 MHz. NOTE: FM is not allowed below 29.5 MHz. Signal from Basic operator cannot be retransmitted below 29.5 MHz. With wavelength in metres being 300 divided by frequency in megahertz: the band covers 10.7 metres to 10.1 metres.

Allowed bandwidth

The numbers to remember are 6, 1, 20, 30, and 12:

For the most part, you’re allowed 6 kHz between 7 and 28 MHz.

B-1-16-3 (A) Except for one band, the maximum bandwidth of an amateur station’s transmission allowed between 7 and 28 MHz is:
A 6 kHz
B 15 kHz
C 20 kHz
D 30 kHz

Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

Except the 10 MHz band is narrow, and only narrow-band signals (of up to 1 kHz) are allowed there.

B-1-16-6 (B) Which of the following bands of amateur frequencies has a maximum allowed bandwidth of less than 6 kHz. That band is:
A 1.8 to 2.0 MHz
B 10.1 to 10.15 MHz
C 18.068 to 18.168 MHz
D 24.89 to 24.99 MHz

Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-1-16-7 (D) Single sideband is not permitted in the band:
A 18.068 to 18.168 MHz
B 24.89 to 24.99 MHz
C 7.0 to 7.3 MHz
D 10.1 to 10.15 MHz

key word: NOT. SSB is too wide for 30 metres. Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-1-16-11 (D) Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:
A frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz
B Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on 10.11 MHz
C 300 bps packet on 10.148 MHz
D single-sideband (SSB) on 10.12 MHz

key word: NOT. SSB is too wide for 30 metres. Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

Just under 30 MHz the max bandwidth jumps up to 20 kHz.

B-1-16-2 (A) The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station’s transmission allowed in the band 28 to 29.7 MHz is:
A 20 kHz
B 6 kHz
C 30 kHz
D 15 kHz

Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

Above 30 MHz, or in the VHF, the max bandwidth goes up to 30 kHz

B-1-16-1 (A) What is the maximum authorized bandwidth within the frequency range of 50 to 148 MHz?
A 30 kHz
B 20 kHz
C The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone emission
D The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission

Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-1-16-5 (C) The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station’s transmission allowed in the band 50 to 54 MHz is:
A 6 kHz
B 15 kHz
C 30 kHz
D 20 kHz

Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-1-16-4 (D) The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station’s transmission allowed in the band 144 to 148 MHz is:
A 6 kHz
B 20 kHz
C 15 kHz
D 30 kHz

Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

In the UHF, the max bandwidth is an amazing 12 MHz. The practical consequence of this is that the ATV mode is too wide for anything below UHF (~440 MHz).

B-1-16-9 (B) Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:
A fast-scan television (ATV) on 440 MHz
B fast-scan television (ATV) on 145 MHz
C AMTOR on 14.08 MHz
D 300 bps packet on 10.145 MHz

key word: NOT. ATV is too wide for 2 metres. Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

B-1-16-10 (B) Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:
A single-sideband (SSB) on 3.76 MHz
B fast-scan television (ATV) on 14.23 MHz
C slow-scan television (SSTV) on 14.23 MHz
D frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz

key word: NOT. ATV is too wide for 20 metres. Allowed bandwidths: with the exception of 30 m (10.1 to 10.15 MHz) where 1 kHz is allowed, 6 kHz is allowed on bands below 28 MHz, 20 kHz is allowed on 10 m (28.0 to 29.7 MHz), 30 kHz is allowed on 6 m (50 to 54 MHz) and 2 m (144 to 148 MHz), Fast-scan Amateur Television only becomes permissible on 430 to 450 MHz [where 12 MHz of bandwidth is allowed]. In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz.

Be aware of bandwidth near band edges.

B-1-16-8 (B) What precaution must an amateur radio operator take when transmitting near band edges?
A Watch the standing wave ratio so as not to damage the transmitter
B Ensure that the bandwidth required on either side of the carrier frequency does not fall out of band
C Restrict operation to telegraphy
D Make sure that the emission mode is compatible with agreed band plans

Transmissions occupy a certain bandwidth on the radio spectrum, i.e., a range of frequencies around the operating frequency; how wide a chunk depends on the amount of information to be transmitted concurrently. For example, a commercial TV channel requires 6 megahertz of bandwidth. Here are a few Amateur modes: CW (Morse) = about 100 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM @ 5 kHz deviation = 10 to 20 kHz.

Power

For the BASIC qualification, the numbers to remember are:

B-1-17-10 (D) Which of the following is the most powerful equipment the holder of a Basic with Honours certificate can legally operate at full power?
A 100 watts carrier power HF transmitter
B 200 watts carrier power HF transceiver
C 600 watts PEP HF linear amplifier
D 160 watts carrier power VHF amplifier

key word: BASIC. “The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification is limited to a maximum transmitting power of: (a) where expressed as direct-current input power, 250 W to the anode or collector circuit of the transmitter stage that supplies radio frequency energy to the antenna; or (b) where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load, (i) 560 W peak envelope power for transmitters that produce any type of single sideband emission, or (ii) 190 W carrier power for transmitters that produce any other type of emission”. (RBR-4, Restrictions on Capacity and Power Output)”. Achieving the Honours level has no bearing on the allowed power.

B-1-17-9 (A) The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification is limited to a maximum of _ watts when expressed as direct current input power to the anode or collector circuit of the transmitter stage supplying radio frequency energy to the antenna:
A 250
B 1000
C 750
D 100

key word: BASIC. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

B-1-17-8 (B) The operator of an amateur station, who is the holder of a Basic Qualification, shall ensure that the station power, when expressed as RF output power measured across an impedance matched load, does not exceed:
A 150 watts peak power
B 560 watts peak-envelope power, for transmitters producing any type of single sideband emission
C 2500 watts peak power
D 1000 watts carrier power for transmitters producing other emissions

key word: BASIC. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

B-1-17-5 (A) What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use for SSB operation on 7055 kHz, if the operator has Basic with Honours qualifications?
A 560 watts PEP output
B 1000 watts PEP output
C 2000 watts PEP output
D 200 watts PEP output

key word: BASIC. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. Achieving the Honours level has no bearing on the allowed power.

B-1-17-4 (C) What is the maximum transmitting output power an amateur station may use on 3750 kHz, if the operator has Basic and Morse code qualifications?
A 1500 watts PEP output for SSB operation
B 2000 watts PEP output for SSB operation
C 560 watts PEP output for SSB operation
D 1000 watts PEP output for SSB operation

key word: BASIC. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

B-1-17-2 (A) What is the most FM transmitter power a holder of only Basic Qualification may use on 147 MHz?
A 250 W DC input
B 1000 watts DC input
C 200 watts PEP output
D 25 watts PEP output

key word: BASIC. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

For the advanced qualification, you get:

B-1-17-7 (A) The maximum DC input to the final stage of an amateur transmitter, when the operator is the holder of both the Basic and Advanced qualifications, is:
A 1000 watts
B 250 watts
C 1500 watts
D 500 watts

key word: ADVANCED. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

B-1-17-6 (A) The DC power input to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage of a transmitter, used by a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification, shall not exceed:
A 1000 watts
B 250 watts
C 500 watts
D 750 watts

key word: ADVANCED. Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

The peak envelope power is measured at the antenna connector

B-1-17-3 (D) Where in your station can you verify that legal power limits are respected?
A At the power amplifier RF input terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier
B On the antenna itself, after the transmission line
C At the power supply terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier
D At the antenna connector of the transmitter or amplifier

Measuring the “direct current input power” presumes that the current consumed strictly by the power amplifier and its working voltage are known. The “radio frequency output power” can be measured at the RF output connector of the power amplifier with a wattmeter. Of the two, this last one is more readily accessible.

Use minimum necessary power

B-1-17-1 (C) What amount of transmitter power should radio amateurs use at all times?
A 250 watts PEP output
B 2000 watts PEP output
C The minimum legal power necessary to communicate
D 25 watts PEP output

Amateurs shall use the minimum legal power necessary to communicate within these restrictions: BASIC Qualification = 250 watts DC input or 560 watts PEP (“where expressed as radio frequency output power measured across an impedance-matched load”). ADVANCED Qualification: 1000 watts DC input. The Morse Qualification has no bearing on the allowed power.

overmodulation

Overmodulation is bad, in the context of voice operations.

You need an ALC meter on your radio to show that you’re not overmodulating.

B-1-19-3 (B) An amateur station using radiotelephony must install a device for indicating or preventing:
A plate voltage
B overmodulation
C resonance
D antenna power

key word: RADIOTELEPHONY. Voice operation runs the risk of overmodulation. “An amateur station shall be equipped with a means of: (a) determining the transmit frequency to the same degree of accuracy as would a crystal calibrator; and (b) indicating or preventing overmodulation of the transmitter in the case of a radiotelephone transmitter.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

B-1-19-2 (C) A reliable means to prevent or indicate overmodulation must be employed at an amateur station if:
A radiotelegraphy is used
B persons other than the holder of the authorization use the station
C radiotelephony is used
D DC input power to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage is in excess of 250 watts

key word: OVERMODULATION. Supposes voice operation. “An amateur station shall be equipped with a means of: (a) determining the transmit frequency to the same degree of accuracy as would a crystal calibrator; and (b) indicating or preventing overmodulation of the transmitter in the case of a radiotelephone transmitter.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

You’re not allowed to modulate more than 100 percent.

B-1-19-4 (C) The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is:
A 50 percent
B 90 percent
C 100 percent
D 75 percent

“An amateur station transmitting amplitude modulation is limited to 100 per cent modulation.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

B-1-19-6 (A) The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is:
A 100 percent
B 90 percent
C 75 percent
D 50 percent

“An amateur station transmitting amplitude modulation is limited to 100 per cent modulation.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

RC models

You can use RC models above 30 MHz

B-1-15-11 (D) In Canada, radio amateurs may use which of the following for radio control of models:
A 50 to 54 MHz only
B all amateur frequency bands
C 50 to 54, 144 to 148, and 222 to 225 MHz only
D all amateur frequency bands above 30 MHz

“Frequencies for Radio Control of Models: The frequency for the radio control of a model is limited to any frequency within the amateur bands above 30 MHz” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

B-1-15-4 (C) The holder of an amateur radio certificate may operate radio controlled models:
A if the frequency used is below 30 MHz
B if only pulse modulation is used
C on all frequencies above 30 MHz
D if the control transmitter does not exceed 15 kHz of occupied bandwidth

“Frequencies for Radio Control of Models: The frequency for the radio control of a model is limited to any frequency within the amateur bands above 30 MHz” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

automatic repeaters

repeaters exist

B-1-18-1 (C) What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations?
A Remote-control station
B Beacon station
C Repeater station
D Space station control and telemetry link

A ‘Repeater’ is generally located on a hill or tall building. It is meant to extend the range of portables and mobiles. ‘Beacons’ are one-way automated stations maintained by amateurs which operate on known frequencies to permit evaluating propagation conditions.

you have to have HF privileges to use an HF repeater

B-1-18-3 (C) Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below __ MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted, unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below the above frequency:
A 50 MHz
B 144 MHz
C 29.5 MHz
D 29.7 MHz

“Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below 29.50 MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below 29.50 MHz.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

B-1-18-4 (B) Which of the following statements is not correct? Radiotelephone signals may be retransmitted:
A in the 144-148 MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification
B in the 21 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification
C in the 29.5-29.7 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification
D in the 50-54 MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification

key word: NOT. “Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below 29.50 MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below 29.50 MHz.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

HF privileges

you need to get “honours” to get on HF

B-1-15-3 (D) In addition to passing the Basic written examination, what must you do before you are allowed to use amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?
A You must notify Industry Canada that you intend to operate on the HF bands
B You must pass a Morse code test
C You must attend a class to learn about HF communications
D You must pass a Morse code or Advanced test or attain a mark of 80% on the Basic exam

Until July 2003, it was an ITU regulation that amateurs needed to demonstrate Morse proficiency before being allowed BELOW 30 MHz. In July 2005, Canada added alternatives to the Morse qualification; namely, an 80% mark on the Basic qualification or an Advanced qualification.

You don’t need code anymore

B-1-20-4 (D) The ITU Radio Regulations limit those radio amateurs, who have not demonstrated proficiency in Morse code, to frequencies above:
A 1.8 MHz
B 3.5MHz
C 28 MHz
D none of the other answers

Until July 2003, it was an ITU regulation that amateurs needed to demonstrate Morse proficiency before being allowed BELOW 30 MHz. In July 2005, Canada added alternatives to the Morse qualification; namely, an 80% mark on the Basic qualification or an Advanced qualification.

unmodulated carriers

You are allowed to “tune up” with an unmodulated carrier, but only on HF (below 30 MHz)

B-1-18-2 (C) An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted only:
A when transmitting SSB
B in frequency bands below 30 MHz
C for brief tests on frequencies below 30 MHz
D if the output to the final RF amplifier is kept under 5W

“An unmodulated carrier in a frequency band below 30 MHz may be transmitted for brief tests.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

frequency stability

below 148 MHz, where the bandwidth is narrow, you have to have good frequency control

B-1-19-1 (D) When operating on frequencies below 148 MHz:
A the bandwidth for any emission must not exceed 3 kHz
B the frequency stability of the transmitter must be at least two parts per million over a period of one hour
C an overmodulation indicator must be used
D the frequency stability must be comparable to crystal control

“The frequency stability of an amateur station in a frequency band below 148.000 MHz shall be equal to or greater than that which is obtainable using crystal control.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

you also always need a frequency meter

B-1-19-5 (C) All amateur stations, regardless of the mode of transmission used, must be equipped with:
A an overmodulation indicating device
B a dummy antenna
C a reliable means of determining the operating radio frequency
D a DC power meter

key words: REGARDLESS OF THE MODE. “Determining the frequency” applies to all modes. “Indication or prevention of overmodulation” applies to voice operation. “An amateur station shall be equipped with a means of: (a) determining the transmit frequency to the same degree of accuracy as would a crystal calibrator; and (b) indicating or preventing overmodulation of the transmitter in the case of a radiotelephone transmitter.” (RBR-4, formerly RIC-2)

towers (10 questions)

you can’t throw up any size tower you like

B-1-23-1 (C) Which of these statements about the installation or modification of an antenna structure is not correct?
A Industry Canada expects radio amateurs to address community concerns in a responsible manner
B Prior to an installation, for which community concerns could be raised, radio amateurs may be required to consult with their land-use authority
C A radio amateur may erect any size antenna structure without consulting neighbours or the local land-use authority
D A radio amateur must follow Industry Canada’s antenna siting procedures.

key word: NOT. Type 2 Stations that do NOT require a site specific authorization, e.g., amateur, general radio service (GRS) and satellite receiving stations - non-site-specific. Owners must comply with Safety Code 6. Prior to the installation of an antenna structure for which it is felt that community concerns could be raised, owners must consult with their land-use authority. Industry Canada expects owners to address the concerns of the community in a responsible manner, and to consider seriously all requests put forward by the land-use authority. (CPC-2-0-03)

The ministry of industry has authorty over towers.

B-1-23-2 (B) Who has authority over antenna installations including antenna masts and towers?
A The majority of neighbours residing within a distance of three times the proposed antenna structure height
B The Minister of Industry
C The person planning to use the tower or their spouse
D The local municipal government

“5. (1) the Minister may, taking into account all matters that the Minister considers relevant for ensuring the orderly establishment or modification of radio stations and the orderly development and efficient operation of radiocommunication in Canada, … (f) approve each site on which radio apparatus, including antenna systems, may be located, and approve the erection of all masts, towers and other antenna-supporting structures” (Radiocommunication Act)

but There are exclusions

B-1-23-3 (B) If you are planning to install or modify an antenna system under what conditions may you not be required to contact land use authorities to determine public consultation requirements?
A When transmitting will only be done at low power
B When an exclusion criterion defined by Industry Canada applies
C In a rural area
D When the structure is part of an amateur radio antenna

Key words: may NOT BE required. “Proponents must always contact the applicable land-use authorities to determine the local consultation requirements unless their proposal falls within the exclusion criteria outlined in Section 6”. (CPC-2-0-03, Land-use Authority and Public Consultation)

Exclusions in either the document or the local land use authority are sufficient to obviate public consultation

B-1-23-7 (B) Where a municipality has developed a public consultation process which of the following options best describes all circumstances when public consultation may not be required?
A Exclusions listed in both CPC-2-0-03 and the Local land use authority process
B Exclusions listed in either CPC-2-0-03 or the Local land use authority process
C Exclusions listed in the Industry Canada Client Procedures Circular on Radiocommunications and Broadcasting Antenna Systems CPC-2-0-03
D Exclusions defined in the Local land use authority process

“Unless the proposal meets the exclusion criteria outlined in Section 6, proponents must consult with the local land-use authorities on any proposed antenna system prior to any construction (…).Under their processes, land-use authorities may exclude from consultation any antenna system installation in addition to those identified by Industry Canada’s own consultation exclusion criteria (…)”. (CPC-2-0-03, Land-use Authority Consultation)

if the local authority does not have a process, then you must follow the industry Canada process, unless you’re excluded from it

B-1-23-4 (A) The land use authority has not established a process for public consultation for antenna systems. The radio amateur planning to install or modify an antenna system:
A must fulfill the public consultation requirements set out in Industry Canada’s Default Public Consultation Process unless the land use authority excludes their type of proposal from consultation or it is excluded by Industry Canada’s process
B can proceed with their project without public consultation
C must implement a public consultation process of their own design
D must wait for the land use authority to develop a public consultation process

“Proponents must follow Industry Canada’s Default Public Consultation Process where the local land-use authority does not have an established and documented public consultation process applicable to antenna siting. Proponents are not required to follow Industry Canada’s Default Public Consultation Process if the land-use authority’s established process explicitly excludes their type of proposal from public consultation or it is excluded by Industry Canada’s criteria (see Section 6)”. (CPC-2-0-03, Industry Canada’s Default Public Consultation Process)

if the land-use authority has a tower process, it applies

B-1-23-10 (C) Where a land use authority or municipality has established a public consultation process for antenna systems, who determines how public consultation should take place?
A The person planning to erect an antenna structure
B The provincial government
C The municipality or local land use authority
D Industry Canada

“Land-use authorities are encouraged to establish reasonable, relevant, and predictable consultation processes specific to antenna systems that consider such things as: the designation of suitable contacts or responsible officials; proposal submission requirements; public consultation; documentation of the concurrence process; and the establishment of milestones to ensure consultation process completion within 120 days”. (CPC-2-0-03, Land-use Authority Consultation)

the process does not involve public meetings.

B-1-23-5 (D) Which is not an element of the Industry Canada Public Consultation Process for antenna systems?
A Providing written notice
B Addressing relevant questions comments and concerns
C Providing an opportunity for the public to respond regarding measures to address reasonable and relevant concerns
D Participating in public meetings on the project

In short: public notification, responding to the public and public reply comment. “Industry Canada’s default process has three steps whereby the proponent: 1. provides written notification to the public, the land-use authority and Industry Canada of the proposed antenna system installation or modification (i.e., public notification); 2. engages the public and the land-use authority in order to address relevant questions, comments and concerns regarding the proposal (i.e., responding to the public); and 3. provides an opportunity to the public and the land-use authority to formally respond in writing to the proponent regarding measures taken to address reasonable and relevant concerns (i.e., public reply comment). (CPC-2-0-03, Industry Canada’s Default Public Consultation Process)

you have 30 days to address concerns

B-1-23-6 (C) The Default Public Consultation Process for antenna systems requires proponents to address:
A comments reported in media reporting on the proposal
B opposition to the project
C reasonable and relevant concerns provided in writing within the 30 day public comment period
D all questions, comments and concerns raised

In short: public notification, responding to the public and public reply comment. “Industry Canada’s default process has three steps whereby the proponent: 1. provides written notification to the public, the land-use authority and Industry Canada of the proposed antenna system installation or modification (i.e., public notification); 2. engages the public and the land-use authority in order to address relevant questions, comments and concerns regarding the proposal (i.e., responding to the public); and 3. provides an opportunity to the public and the land-use authority to formally respond in writing to the proponent regarding measures taken to address reasonable and relevant concerns (i.e., public reply comment). (CPC-2-0-03, Industry Canada’s Default Public Consultation Process)

industry canada has the final decision

B-1-23-8 (D) Where the proponent and a stakeholder other than the general public reach an impasse over a proposed antenna system the final decision will:
A be postponed until those in dispute reach an agreement
B be made by the municipality in which the antenna is to be built
C be made by a majority vote of those residing within a radius of three times the antenna structure height
D be made by Industry Canada

“Upon receipt of a written request, from a stakeholder other than the general public, asking for Departmental intervention concerning a reasonable and relevant concern (…). The Department will, based on the information provided, either: make a final decision on the issue(s) in question, and advise the parties of its decision; or suggest the parties enter into an alternate dispute resolution process (…)”. (CPC-2-0-03, Dispute Resolution Process)

the taller of the two exclusions applies

B-1-23-9 (B) In general, what is the tallest amateur radio antenna system excluded from the requirement to consult with the land use authority and the public where there is a land use authority defined public consultation process?
A 21m
B the taller of the height exclusion in the land use authority public consultation process and Industry Canada’s antenna siting procedures
C 10m
D 15m

“For the following types of installations, proponents are excluded from the requirement to consult with the land-use authorities and the public, but must still fulfill the General Requirements outlined in Section 7: (…) new antenna systems, including masts, towers or other antenna-supporting structure, with a height of less than 15 metres above ground level”. (CPC-2-0-03, Exclusions)

interference

B-1-25-1 (D) In the event of the malfunctioning of a neighbour’s broadcast FM receiver and stereo system, it will be deemed that the affected equipment’s lack of immunity is the cause if the field strength:
A at the transmitting location is below the radio amateur’s maximum allowable transmitter power
B at the transmitting location is above 100 watts
C near the affected equipment is above Industry Canada’s specified immunity criteria
D on the premises of the affected equipment is below Industry Canada’s specified immunity criteria

“If the level of the transmitted signal exceeds the applicable field strength value on the premises of the affected equipment, it will be deemed that the transmission is the cause of the problem. If the field strength is less than the applicable value, the affected equipment’s lack of immunity will be judged the cause. These criteria are not applicable to incidents involving the transmissions of AM, FM or TV broadcasting transmitters”. (EMCA
B-2)

B-1-25-2 (D) In the event of interference to a neighbour’s television receiver, according to EMCA
B-2 it will be deemed that a radio amateur’s transmission is the cause of the problem if the field strength:
A near the TV is below Industry Canada’s specified immunity criteria
B at the transmitting location is below the radio amateur’s maximum allowable transmitter power
C at the transmitting location is above the radio amateur’s maximum allowable transmitter power
D on the neighbour’s premises is above Industry Canada’s specified immunity criteria

“If the level of the transmitted signal exceeds the applicable field strength value on the premises of the affected equipment, it will be deemed that the transmission is the cause of the problem. If the field strength is less than the applicable value, the affected equipment’s lack of immunity will be judged the cause. These criteria are not applicable to incidents involving the transmissions of AM, FM or TV broadcasting transmitters”. (EMCA
B-2)

B-1-25-3 (B) Which of the following is defined in EMCA
B-2 as “any device, machinery or equipment, other than radio apparatus, the use or functioning of which is, or can be, adversely affected by radiocommunication emissions”?
A Broadcast receivers
B Radio-sensitive equipment
C Cable television converters
D Audio and video recorders

“Radio-sensitive equipment” means any device, machinery or equipment, other than radio apparatus, the use or functioning of which is or can be adversely affected by radiocommunication emissions”. (Radiocommunication Act)

B-1-25-4 (C) According to EMCA
B-2 which of the following types of equipment is not included in the list of field strength criteria for resolution of immunity complaints?
A Associated equipment
B Radio-sensitive equipment
C Broadcast transmitters
D Broadcast receivers

Key word: NOT. The “Criteria for Resolution of Immunity Complaints involving Fundamental Emissions of Radiocommunications Transmitters” considers 3 categories of electronic equipment: ‘Broadcast Receivers’, ‘Associated Equipment’ (recorders, players, amplifiers, converters, etc.) and ‘Radio-Sensitive Equipment’ (all other non-radio electronic equipment). The criteria are not applicable to incidents involving the transmissions of AM, FM or TV broadcasting transmitters. (EMCA
B-2)

{L16} Routine operation.

call signs and identification

Calls are sent at the beginning and end of a conversation, and at least 30 minutes; whichever is shorter. (7 questions)

B-1-13-3 (C) What do you transmit to identify your amateur station?
A Your first name and your location
B Your full name
C Your call sign
D Your “handle”

Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

B-1-13-5 (A) What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end communications?
A Each station must transmit its own call sign
B No identification is required
C One of the stations must transmit both stations’ call signs
D Both stations must transmit both call signs

Each station is required to identify itself. Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

B-1-13-2 (B) How often must an amateur station be identified?
A At the beginning and end of each transmission
B At least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact
C At the beginning of a contact and at least every thirty minutes after that
D At least once during each transmission

Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

B-1-13-4 (A) What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations begin communications?
A Each station must transmit its own call sign
B No identification is required
C Both stations must transmit both call signs
D One of the stations must give both stations’ call signs

Each station is required to identify itself. Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

B-1-13-6 (B) What is the longest period of time an amateur station can transmit, without identifying by call sign?
A 10 minutes
B 30 minutes
C 20 minutes
D 15 minutes

Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

B-1-13-9 (D) The call sign of an amateur station must be transmitted:
A at intervals not greater than three minutes when using voice communications
B at intervals not greater than ten minutes when using Morse code
C when requested to do so by the station being called
D at the beginning and at the end of each exchange of communications and at intervals not greater than 30 minutes

Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

B-1-13-10 (B) The call sign of an amateur station must be sent:
A once after initial contact
B at the beginning and end of each exchange of communications, and at least every 30 minutes, while in communications
C every minute
D every 15 minutes

Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

Remote controlled models don’t need to identify.

B-1-13-7 (A) When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications?
A Never, except to control a model craft
B Only for brief tests not meant as messages
C Only if it does not interfere with others
D Only for two-way or third-party communications

key word: UNINDENTIFIED. Any test transmission must include station identification. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification. Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most.

Canadian call signs start with V:
VA, VE, VO, or VY.

B-1-13-1 (D) Which of the following call signs is a valid Canadian amateur radio call sign?
A SM2CAN
B BY7HY
C KA9OLS
D VA3XYZ

Valid Canadian prefixes include VA, VE, VO (letter o) and VY. [ VO1 = Newfoundland, VO2 = Labrador, VY1 = Yukon, VY2 = Nunavut ]

B-1-13-11 (A) The call sign of a Canadian amateur radio station would normally start with the letters:
A VA, VE, VO or VY
B GA, GE, MO or VQ
C A, K, N or W
D EA, EI, RO or UY

Valid Canadian prefixes include VA, VE, VO (letter o) and VY. [ VO1 = Newfoundland, VO2 = Labrador, VY1 = Yukon, VY2 = Nunavut ]

Identification must be done in English or French. The conversation can be in any language.

B-1-13-8 (D) What language may you use when identifying your station?
A Any language being used for a contact
B Any language being used for a contact, providing Canada has a third-party communications agreement with that country
C Any language of a country which is a member of the International Telecommunication Union
D English or French

key word: IDENTIFYING. Contact may be conducted in any language but identification must be in one of the two official languages. Station identification: your call sign in English or French, at the START and the END of a contact or test transmission and every 30 minutes at the most. Only Remote-Control transmissions to model craft need not include station identification.

be polite

Listen first.

Before transmitting, ask:
“is this frequency in use?”

B-2-4-11 (C) Before transmitting, the first thing you should do is:
A make an announcement on the frequency indicating that you intend to make a call
B decrease your receiver’s volume
C listen carefully so as not to interrupt communications already in progress
D ask if the frequency is occupied

First, listen for a little while then ask “Is this frequency in use?” ( QRL? in Morse ).

B-2-5-11 (A) Good Morse telegraphy operators:
A listen to the frequency to make sure that it is not in use before transmitting
B always give stations a good readability report
C save time by leaving out spaces between words
D tune the transmitter using the operating antenna

First, listen for a little while then ask “Is this frequency in use?” ( QRL? in Morse ).

B-2-4-1 (B) What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?
A Listen to make sure that someone will be able to hear you
B Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency
C Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency
D Make sure the SWR on your antenna transmission line is high enough

First, listen for a little while then ask “Is this frequency in use?” ( QRL? in Morse ).

Don’t stomp on people:

B-2-4-8 (B) If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
A Increase the output power of your transmitter to overcome the interference
B Move your contact to another frequency
C Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there first
D Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

No given station is entitled to any specific frequency (regardless of qualification, power or affiliation).

B-2-4-6 (B) If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins?
A Cancel the net for that day
B Call and ask occupants to relinquish the frequency for the scheduled net operations, but if they are not agreeable, conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the regular net frequency
C Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
D Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity

A ‘Net’ is an activity carried on a given day and time at a known frequency where stations exchange information. Although no given station is entitled to any specific frequency (regardless of qualification, power or affiliation), stations would normally yield to an established daily net but if not, you need to move the net away.

B-2-4-7 (B) If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are using, what should you do?
A Turn off your radio
B As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency
C Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you
D Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it

A ‘Net’ is an activity carried on a given day and time at a known frequency where stations exchange information. Although no given station is entitled to any specific frequency (regardless of qualification, power or affiliation), stations would normally yield to an established daily net but if not, you need to move the net away.

CW operation

CW signals should be spaced spaced at least 150 Hz apart. They are about 100 Hz wide.

B-2-5-10 (D) When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference?
A 5 to 50 Hz
B 1 to 3 kHz
C 3 to 6 kHz
D 150 to 500 Hz

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz. Minimum frequency separation: CW = 150 to 500 Hz, RTTY = 250 to 500 Hz, SSB = 3 kHz to 5 kHz.

“full break in” keys the transmitter off between dots and dashes, allowing you to hear between the spaces.

B-2-5-9 (C) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
A An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
B Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
C Incoming signals are received between transmitted Morse code dots and dashes
D Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

When a station operates “full break-in”, the receiver becomes active IN BETWEEN the transmitted dots and dashes. It permits the other station to interrupt (break-in), for example, when it failed to copy a word.

abbreviations and procedural signals

CQ means “c’est qui” or “seek you”

B-2-5-4 (A) What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?
A Calling any station
B Call on the quarter hour
C An antenna is being tested
D Only the station “CQ” should answer

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

DE means “this is”

B-2-5-5 (A) What is the meaning of the procedural signal “DE”?
A From
B Received all correctly
C Calling any station
D Directional Emissions

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

K means “go ahead”

B-2-5-6 (A) What is the meaning of the procedural signal “K”?
A Any station please reply
B End of message
C Called station only transmit
D All received correctly

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

DX means “distant”

B-2-5-7 (C) What is meant by the term “DX”?
A Go ahead
B Best regards
C Distant station
D Calling any station

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

73 means “best regards”

B-2-5-8 (C) What is the meaning of the term “73”?
A Love and kisses
B Go ahead
C Best regards
D Long distance

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

how to call and answer CQ

in Morse
CQ CQ CQ DE CALL CALL CALL K

B-2-5-1 (C) What is the correct way to call “CQ” when using Morse code?
A Send the letters “CQ” ten times, followed by “DE”, followed by your call sign sent once
B Send the letters “CQ” over and over
C Send the letters “CQ” three times, followed by “DE”, followed by your call sign sent three times
D Send the letters “CQ” three times, followed by “DE”, followed by your call sign sent once

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

B-2-5-3 (A) At what speed should a Morse code “CQ” call be transmitted?
A At any speed which you can reliably receive
B At any speed below 5 w.p.m.
C At the highest speed your keyer will operate
D At the highest speed at which you can control the keyer

Any station which answers your call is likely to transmit at a speed similar to yours. Operators frequently find it easier to transmit at higher speed than they can reliably copy.

B-2-5-2 (B) How should you answer a routine Morse code “CQ” call?
A Send your call sign followed by your name, station location and a signal report
B Send the other station’s call sign twice, followed by “DE”, followed by your call sign twice
C Send your call sign four times
D Send the other station’s call sign once, followed by “DE”, followed by your call sign four times

“CQ” is a general call to any station. “DE” ( French for ‘from’ ) is the Morse abbreviation for “this is”. Other abbreviations include: “K” (go ahead or over), “DX” (distant station) and “73” (best regards). [ “KN” is ‘go station’ ]

in voice:
CQ CQ CQ this is CALL CALL CALL

answering:
CALL this is [call in phonetics]

B-2-3-1 (B) What is the correct way to call “CQ” when using voice?
A Say “CQ” at least ten times, followed by “this is,” followed by your call sign spoken once
B Say “CQ” three times, followed by “this is,” followed by your call sign spoken three times
C Say “CQ” once, followed by “this is,” followed by your call sign spoken three times
D Say “CQ” at least five times, followed by “this is,” followed by your call sign spoken once

A call to any station: “CQ” three times, “THIS IS”, your call sign three times. Any word only spoken once might easily not get noticed.

B-2-3-2 (B) How should you answer a voice CQ call?
A Say the other station’s call sign at least ten times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign at least twice
B Say the other station’s call sign once, followed by “this is,” then your call sign given phonetically
C Say the other station’s call sign at least five times phonetically, followed by “this is,” then your call sign twice
D Say the other station’s call sign at least three times, followed by “this is,” and your call sign at least five times phonetically

Anything spoken five or ten times is just overkill.

avoid QRM interference

use minimum power

B-2-4-2 (B) If you contact another station and your signal is extremely strong and perfectly readable, what adjustment should you make to your transmitter?
A Continue with your contact, making no changes
B Turn down your power output to the minimum necessary
C Turn on your speech processor
D Reduce your SWR

Amateurs should always use the minimum power required.

use spectrum effectively

B-2-3-5 (C) Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies?
A Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
B Because signals are stronger on VHF and UHF frequencies
C To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance communication
D Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF

Always choose a frequency with the least reach so the spectrum remains usable elsewhere.

use a dummy load to tune up

B-2-4-5 (B) Why would you use a dummy load?
A To reduce output power
B To test or adjust your transceiver without causing interference
C To give comparative signal reports
D It is faster to tune

The ‘Dummy Load’ (a resistor with a high power rating) dissipates RF energy as heat without radiating the RF on the air. Permits tests or adjustments without causing interference to other stations. The ‘tuning process’ (or ‘loading’) refers to a manual procedure necessary for equipment with vacuum tube final Power Amplifiers where variable capacitors needed to be adjusted.

B-2-4-4 (D) How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy transmitter testing or tuning procedure?
A Choose an unoccupied frequency
B Use a non-resonant antenna
C Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure
D Use a dummy load

The ‘Dummy Load’ (a resistor with a high power rating) dissipates RF energy as heat without radiating the RF on the air. Permits tests or adjustments without causing interference to other stations. The ‘tuning process’ (or ‘loading’) refers to a manual procedure necessary for equipment with vacuum tube final Power Amplifiers where variable capacitors needed to be adjusted.

B-2-4-3 (B) What is one way to shorten transmitter tune-up time on the air to cut down on interference?
A Use twin lead instead of coaxial cable transmission lines
B Tune the transmitter into a dummy load
C Use a long wire antenna
D Tune up on 40 metres first, then switch to the desired band

The ‘Dummy Load’ (a resistor with a high power rating) dissipates RF energy as heat without radiating the RF on the air. Permits tests or adjustments without causing interference to other stations. The ‘tuning process’ (or ‘loading’) refers to a manual procedure necessary for equipment with vacuum tube final Power Amplifiers where variable capacitors needed to be adjusted.

follow band plans

B-2-4-10 (A) What is a band plan?
A A guideline for using different operating modes within an amateur band
B A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by Industry Canada
C A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest
D A guideline for deviating from amateur frequency band allocations

“Band Plans” are published by Amateur organizations to suggest specific modes in specific segments of the band. The idea is to minimize interference and allow interest groups to find one another.

Space signals properly: SSB signals are no more than 3 kHz wide, so can be spaced as close as 3 kHz apart

B-2-4-9 (B) When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize interference?
A Approximately 10 kHz
B Approximately 3 kHz
C 150 to 500 Hz
D Approximately 6 kHz

In order of bandwidth requirements: CW = about 100 Hz, RTTY = about 600 Hz, SSB = 2 to 3 kHz, FM = 10 to 20 kHz. Minimum frequency separation: CW = 150 to 500 Hz, RTTY = 250 to 500 Hz, SSB = 3 kHz to 5 kHz.

follow the sideband convention:

B-2-3-10 (B) Which sideband is commonly used on 3755 kHz for phone operation?
A Upper
B Lower
C FM
D Double

Choice of sideband: BELOW 10 MHZ ( 160 m, 80 m, 40 m ), use Lower Sideband (LSB). Above 10 MHz ( 20 m and up ), use Upper Sideband (USB). The new (2014) 60 metres band is an exception.

B-2-3-9 (A) Which sideband is commonly used for 20-metre phone operation?
A Upper
B Lower
C FM
D Double

Choice of sideband: BELOW 10 MHZ ( 160 m, 80 m, 40 m ), use Lower Sideband (LSB). Above 10 MHz ( 20 m and up ), use Upper Sideband (USB). The new (2014) 60 metres band is an exception.

repeaters

They extend the range of isolated stations.

B-2-1-2 (C) What is the main purpose of a repeater?
A To retransmit weather information during severe storm warnings
B To make local information available 24 hours a day
C To increase the range of portable and mobile stations
D To link amateur stations with the telephone system

A ‘Repeater’ is generally located on a hill or tall building. It is meant to extend the range of portables and mobiles.

Repeaters operate on a fixed input and output frequency.

B-2-3-8 (B) If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would it be good amateur practice to change to another frequency?
A Changing the repeater’s frequency requires the authorization of Industry Canada
B Changing the repeater’s frequency is not practical
C The repeater’s output power may ruin your station’s receiver
D There are more repeater operators than simplex operators

If you operate simplex on a repeater frequency, you are preventing others from using the repeater. Amateur organizations publish ‘Band Plans’ where segments reserved for simplex operation are recommended.

B-2-3-6 (B) Why should we be careful in choosing a simplex frequency when operating VHF or UHF FM?
A Some frequencies are designated for narrow band FM and others for wideband FM
B You may inadvertently choose a channel that is the input to a local repeater
C Interference may be caused to unlicensed devices operating in the same band
D Implanted medical devices share the same spectrum

Because repeaters use two frequencies, an input and an output, you could unknowingly choose a frequency which appears free, but happens to be the input of a repeater. Your transmissions would be rebroadcast and repeater users would be blocked from using the repeater. Amateur organizations publish ‘band plans’ which suggest what type of operation is advisable in which segments of the bands.

B-2-1-3 (C) What is frequency coordination on VHF and UHF bands?
A The selection of simplex frequencies by individual operators
B A part of the planning prior to a contest
C A process which seeks to carefully assign frequencies so as to minimize interference with neighbouring repeaters
D A band plan detailing modes and frequency segments within a band

Frequency coordination committees or councils are regional volunteer organizations which promote discussion between repeater trustees so that frequency selection reduces interference in areas where repeater coverage overlaps.

simplex operation

B-2-3-3 (A) What is simplex operation?
A Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency
B Transmitting and receiving over a wide area
C Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another
D Transmitting one-way communications

‘Simplex’ ( also known as direct ) operation where two stations use one frequency in turns contrasts with repeater operation (duplex) where two frequencies are used simultaneously ( the repeater output frequency and the repeater input frequency ). Stations should avoid tying-up a repeater for long periods of time when within range of one another on a simplex frequency. Most receivers can be switched to the repeater input frequency at the press of a button (this is useful to verify if simplex operation is possible with a given station).

B-2-3-4 (A) When should you consider using simplex operation instead of a repeater?
A When signals are reliable between communicating parties without using a repeater
B When the most reliable communications are needed
C When an emergency telephone call is needed
D When you are traveling and need some local information

‘Simplex’ ( also known as direct ) operation where two stations use one frequency in turns contrasts with repeater operation (duplex) where two frequencies are used simultaneously ( the repeater output frequency and the repeater input frequency ). Stations should avoid tying-up a repeater for long periods of time when within range of one another on a simplex frequency. Most receivers can be switched to the repeater input frequency at the press of a button (this is useful to verify if simplex operation is possible with a given station).

B-2-3-7 (A) If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?
A See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater’s input frequency
B See if a third station can clearly receive both of you
C See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater
D See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower frequency band

‘Simplex’ ( also known as direct ) operation where two stations use one frequency in turns contrasts with repeater operation (duplex) where two frequencies are used simultaneously ( the repeater output frequency and the repeater input frequency ). Stations should avoid tying-up a repeater for long periods of time when within range of one another on a simplex frequency. Most receivers can be switched to the repeater input frequency at the press of a button (this is useful to verify if simplex operation is possible with a given station).

Input and output frequencies are spaced by 600 kHz on the 2 m band.

B-2-1-11 (C) FM repeater operation on the 2 metre band uses one frequency for transmission and one for reception. The difference in frequency between the transmit and receive frequency is normally:
A 1 000 kHz
B 400 kHz
C 600 kHz
D 800 kHz

The difference between the OUTPUT and INPUT frequencies of a repeater is termed the ‘Offset’. On 2 m, the standard is “plus 600 kHz” or “minus 600 kHz”.

Transmissions should be short and spaced with pauses as a courtesy to others.

B-2-1-8 (D) Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?
A To keep long-distance charges down
B To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond
C To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
D A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the repeater

Repeaters are meant primarily to extend the range of portables and mobiles. You never know when someone else might need the repeater. Be sure to leave pauses in between transmissions. Anyone wanting the repeater may signal his presence by stating his call sign during one such pause. A station may have emergency traffic.

B-2-1-7 (A) Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a repeater?
A To listen for anyone else wanting to use the repeater
B To check the SWR of the repeater
C To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications
D To dial up the repeater’s autopatch

Repeaters are meant primarily to extend the range of portables and mobiles. You never know when someone else might need the repeater. Be sure to leave pauses in between transmissions. Anyone wanting the repeater may signal his presence by stating his call sign during one such pause. A station may have emergency traffic.

B-2-1-4 (B) What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?
A It tells how long someone has been using a repeater
B It interrupts lengthy transmissions without pauses
C It lets a repeater have a rest period after heavy use
D It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will fail

The ‘Time-out Timer’ takes a repeater off the air after a determined time of continuous transmission, either unintended or malicious. The timer enforces pauses between transmissions.

They may use a tone squelch.

B-2-1-5 (B) What is a CTCSS tone?
A A special signal used for radio control of model craft
B A sub-audible tone that activates a receiver audio output when present
C A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission
D A special signal used for telemetry between amateur space stations and Earth stations

CTCSS — “Continuous Tone-Controlled Squelch System”. A receiver equipped with a CTCSS decoder will not reproduce a signal unless it carries a given su
B-audible tone in the background, for example a continuous 100 Hz tone. To work with such receivers, a transmitter must be equipped with a CTCSS encoder [ Standard tones are in the range of 67 to 254 Hz, below the normal speech frequencies of 300 to 3000 Hz ]. [ PL (Private Line) is a trademark of Motorola ]

Join a conversation by simply stating your callsign. Make contact by exchanging callsigns.

B-2-1-9 (B) What is the proper way to join into a conversation on a repeater?
A Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking
B Say your call sign during a break between transmissions
C Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party
D Shout, “break, break!” to show that you’re eager to join the conversation

Repeaters are meant primarily to extend the range of portables and mobiles. You never know when someone else might need the repeater. Be sure to leave pauses in between transmissions. Anyone wanting the repeater may signal his presence by stating his call sign during one such pause. A station may have emergency traffic.

B-2-1-1 (D) What is a good way to make contact on a repeater?
A Say the other operator’s name, then your call sign three times
B Say, “Breaker, breaker,”
C Say the call sign of the station you want to contact three times
D Say the call sign of the station you want to contact, then your call sign

Say the call sign of the other station FIRST (to get his attention), the expression “THIS IS” and your call sign.

B-2-1-6 (A) How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station’s call sign?
A Say the station’s call sign, then identify your own station
B Say “break, break 79,” then say the station’s call sign
C Say “CQ” three times, then say the station’s call sign
D Wait for the station to call “CQ”, then answer it

Say the call sign of the other station FIRST (to get his attention), the expression “THIS IS” and your call sign. “CQ” is a general call to ANY station (primarily meant for HF).

Use plain language on a repeater, like “what is your location?”

B-2-1-10 (D) What is the accepted way to ask someone their location when using a repeater?
A What is your 20?
B Locations are not normally told by radio
C What is your 12?
D Where are you?

Plain language is normally used on repeaters.

For signal reports on a repeater, strength is not so important. Readability is more important.

B-2-6-6 (B) A distant station asks for a signal report on a local repeater you monitor. Which fact affects your assessment?
A Signal reports are only useful on simplex communications
B The other operator needs to know how well he is received at the repeater, not how well you receive the repeater
C The repeater gain affects your S-meter reading
D You need to listen to the repeater input frequency for an accurate signal report

When you listen to the output of a local repeater, signal strength is likely to be full-scale. A distant station may appear noisy or cutting-out at the repeater input. If you report those symptoms, the operator may use more power, reorient his antenna or change location.

the phonetic alphabet

Use the Standard International Phonetic Alphabet. Don’t reinvent the wheel.

B-2-2-1 (C) To make your call sign better understood when using voice transmissions, what should you do?
A Talk louder
B Turn up your microphone gain
C Use Standard International Phonetics for each letter of your call sign
D Use any words which start with the same letters as your call sign for each letter of your call

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

B-2-2-2 (C) What can you use as an aid for correct station identification when using phone?
A Unique words of your choice
B A speech compressor
C The Standard International Phonetic Alphabet
D Q signals

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

A is Alpha. (It used to be Able)

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

B-2-2-3 (B) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter A?
A America
B Alfa
C Able
D Adam

B is Bravo. (It used to be Baker.)

B-2-2-4 (D) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter B?
A Brazil
B Borneo
C Baker
D Bravo

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

D is Delta. (It used to be dog.)

B-2-2-5 (D) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter D?
A Dog
B Denmark
C David
D Delta

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

E is Echo. (It used to be easy.)

B-2-2-6 (C) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter E?
A Edward
B England
C Echo
D Easy

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

G is Golf. (It used to be George.)

B-2-2-7 (C) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter G?
A Germany
B Gibraltar
C Golf
D George

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

I is India. (It used to be item.)

B-2-2-8 (B) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter I?
A Item
B India
C Iran
D Italy

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

L is Lima. (It used to be love.)

B-2-2-9 (A) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter L?
A Lima
B Love
C London
D Luxembourg

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

P is Papa. (It used to be Peter.)

B-2-2-10 (A) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter P?
A Papa
B Portugal
C Paris
D Peter

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

R is Romeo. (It used to be Roger.)

B-2-2-11 (A) What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter R?
A Romeo
B Roger
C Radio
D Romania

To make a call sign clearer or spell some unusual word, use the International Phonetic Alphabet: Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Fox-Trot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whisky, X-Ray, Yankee, Zulu.

Q-signals

QRL? means “is this frequency in use?”

B-2-7-3 (C) What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW?
A QRU?
B QRZ?
C QRL?
D QRV?

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QTH means location

B-2-7-2 (B) What is one meaning of the Q signal “QTH”?
A Time here is
B My location is
C Stop sending
D My name is

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QSY means “change frequency”

B-2-7-4 (C) What is one meaning of the Q signal “QSY”?
A Send faster
B Send more slowly
C Change frequency
D Use more power

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QSB means fading.

B-2-7-5 (A) What is the meaning of the Q signal “QSB”?
A Your signal is fading
B I am busy
C I have no message
D A contact is confirmed

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QRZ means “who’s calling?”

B-2-7-6 (C) What is the proper Q signal to ask who is calling you on CW?
A QRL?
B QRT?
C QRZ?
D QSL?

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

B-2-7-10 (C) Who is calling me is denoted by the “Q signal”:
A QRP?
B QRM?
C QRZ?
D QRK?

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QRM means “Man-made interference”

B-2-7-7 (A) The signal “QRM” signifies:
A I am being interfered with
B I am troubled by static
C your signals are fading
D is my transmission being interfered with

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QRN means “Natural” interference; i.e. static

B-2-7-8 (B) The signal “QRN” means:
A I am being interfered with
B I am troubled by static
C I am busy
D are you troubled by static

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QRS means “send slower”

B-2-7-1 (B) What is the meaning of the Q signal “QRS”?
A Radio station location is:
B Send more slowly
C Interference from static
D Send “RST” report

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

B-2-7-9 (B) The “Q signal” indicating that you want the other station to send slower is:
A QRN
B QRS
C QRM
D QRL

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

QRX means “will call again”

B-2-7-11 (D) The “Q signal” which signifies “I will call you again” is:
A QRZ
B QRS
C QRT
D QRX

Nine Q codes: QRL? frequency in use?, QRM interference, QRN static, QRS send more slowly, QRX will call you, QRZ? who is calling, QSB signal fading, QSY change frequency, QTH location.

RST reports

RST reports describe signal reception.

B-2-6-1 (A) What are “RST” signal reports?
A A short way to describe signal reception
B A short way to describe transmitter power
C A short way to describe sunspot activity
D A short way to describe ionospheric conditions

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

RST stands for:

B-2-6-2 (B) What does “RST” mean in a signal report?
A Readability, signal speed, tempo
B Readability, signal strength, tone
C Recovery, signal strength, tempo
D Recovery, signal speed, tone

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

The S-meter is a quantitative measure of signal strength. It goes from zero to nine, and then dB over that. A difference of a single S-unit corresponds to a factor of four.

B-2-6-5 (B) What is the meaning of: “You are 5 9 plus 20 dB”?
A Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
B You are perfectly readable with a signal strength 20 decibels greater than S 9
C The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
D Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher

The ‘S-meter’ on a receiver provides a relative indication of received signal strength. S-meters are calibrated at the low end in S units, from S1 to S9. One S unit represents about 6 decibels ( four times the power ). Above a signal strength of S9, readings are in decibels: 10 dB over S9, 20 dB over S9, 30 dB over S9, etc.

B-2-6-7 (D) If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times, how might a nearby receiver’s S-meter reading change?
A Increase by approximately four S units
B Decrease by approximately four S units
C Decrease by approximately one S unit
D Increase by approximately one S unit

The ‘S-meter’ on a receiver provides a relative indication of received signal strength. S-meters are calibrated at the low end in S units, from S1 to S9. One S unit represents about 6 decibels ( four times the power ). Above a signal strength of S9, readings are in decibels: 10 dB over S9, 20 dB over S9, 30 dB over S9, etc.

B-2-6-8 (A) By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8 to S9?
A Approximately 4 times
B Approximately 5 times
C Approximately 3 times
D Approximately 2 times

The ‘S-meter’ on a receiver provides a relative indication of received signal strength. S-meters are calibrated at the low end in S units, from S1 to S9. One S unit represents about 6 decibels ( four times the power ). Above a signal strength of S9, readings are in decibels: 10 dB over S9, 20 dB over S9, 30 dB over S9, etc.

Three digits are used for Morse.

B-2-6-9 (D) What does “RST 579” mean in a Morse code contact?
A Your signal is perfectly readable, weak strength, and with perfect tone
B Your signal is fairly readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone
C Your signal is barely readable, moderately strong, and with faint ripple
D Your signal is perfectly readable, moderately strong, and with perfect tone

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

B-2-6-10 (D) What does “RST 459” mean in a Morse code contact?
A Your signal is very readable, very strong, and with perfect tone
B Your signal is barely readable, very weak, and with perfect tone
C Your signal is moderately readable, very weak, and with hum on the tone
D Your signal is quite readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

Two digits are used for voice.

B-2-6-3 (D) What is the meaning of: “Your signal report is 5 7”?
A Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
B Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone
C Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak
D Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

B-2-6-4 (D) What is the meaning of: “Your signal report is 3 3 “?
A Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength
B The station is located at latitude 33 degrees
C The contact is serial number 33
D Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

B-2-6-11 (C) What is the meaning of “Your signal report is 1 1”?
A Your signal is first class in readability and first class in strength
B Your signal is very readable and very strong
C Your signal is unreadable, and barely perceptible
D Your signal is 11 dB over S9

“RST”, A short way to describe signal reception ( Readability: 1 to 5, Signal Strength: 1 to 9, Tone Quality (for Morse): 1 to 9 ). For example, “11” unreadable, barely perceptible. “33” difficult to read, weak signal. “45” readable, fairly good. “57” perfectly readable, moderately strong.

Distress signals

Distress signals are used when life is threatened.

B-2-8-1 (B) When may you use your amateur station to transmit an “SOS” or “MAYDAY”?
A Only in case of a severe weather watch
B In a life-threatening distress situation
C Never
D Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour)

SOS (Morse) and MAYDAY (voice) are internationally recognized distress signals. Used to request help in a life-threatening situation. False or deceptive distress signals are punishable by law.

Distress signals should be acknowledged immediately.

B-2-8-2 (A) If you are in contact with another station and you hear an emergency call for help on your frequency, what should you do?
A Immediately stop your contact and acknowledge the emergency call
B Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use
C Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency net frequency
D Call your local police station and inform them of the emergency call

Stations in distress are priority number one, someone’s life is at risk. The order of priority is 1) Distress, 2) Emergency and 3) Safety. Acknowledge the station immediately and see how it can be helped. If you cannot provide help, monitor the frequency to ensure help is forthcoming.

B-2-8-9 (A) If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do?
A Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed
B Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
C Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance
D Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency

Stations in distress are priority number one, someone’s life is at risk. The order of priority is 1) Distress, 2) Emergency and 3) Safety. Acknowledge the station immediately and see how it can be helped. If you cannot provide help, monitor the frequency to ensure help is forthcoming.

The voice distress call is MAYDAY.

B-2-8-3 (C) What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone?
A Say “EMERGENCY” several times
B Say “HELP” several times
C Say “MAYDAY” several times
D Say “SOS” several times

SOS (Morse) and MAYDAY (voice) are internationally recognized distress signals. Used to request help in a life-threatening situation. False or deceptive distress signals are punishable by law.

The Morse distress call is SOS.

B-2-8-4 (A) What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW?
A SOS
B CQD
C QRRR
D MAYDAY

SOS (Morse) and MAYDAY (voice) are internationally recognized distress signals. Used to request help in a life-threatening situation. False or deceptive distress signals are punishable by law.

You may break in to make a distress call, when you will be heard.

B-2-8-5 (A) What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal a distress call?
A Break-in immediately following the transmission of the active party and state your situation and call sign
B Say “EMERGENCY” three times
C Say “SOS,” then your call sign
D Say “HELP” as many times as it takes to get someone to answer

Say your call sign with the words “emergency traffic” during a pause. Repeaters are meant primarily to extend the range of portables and mobiles. You never know when someone else might need the repeater. Be sure to leave pauses in between transmissions. Anyone wanting the repeater may signal his presence by stating his call sign during one such pause.

Distress calls take priority over emergency and safety calls.

B-2-8-10 (A) In order of priority, a distress message comes before:
A an emergency message
B no other messages
C a government priority message
D a safety message

Stations in distress are priority number one, someone’s life is at risk. The order of priority is 1) Distress, 2) Emergency and 3) Safety. Acknowledge the station immediately and see how it can be helped. If you cannot provide help, monitor the frequency to ensure help is forthcoming.

Distress calls require action.

B-2-8-11 (D) If you hear distress traffic and are unable to render direct assistance you should:
A enter the details in the log book and take no further action
B take no action
C tell all other stations to cease transmitting
D contact authorities and then maintain watch until you are certain that assistance will be forthcoming

Stations in distress are priority number one, someone’s life is at risk. The order of priority is 1) Distress, 2) Emergency and 3) Safety. Acknowledge the station immediately and see how it can be helped. If you cannot provide help, monitor the frequency to ensure help is forthcoming.

Emergency preparedness

Have an emergency power source ready

B-2-8-6 (B) Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station without using commercial AC power lines?
A So you may use your station while mobile
B So you may provide communications in an emergency
C So you will comply with rules
D So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed

Amateurs have a long history of providing emergency communications during disasters. Charged batteries and rapidly-deployable antennas are useful station accessories.

Have spare batteries ready

B-2-8-7 (D) What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency?
A An extra antenna
B A portable amplifier
C A microphone headset for hands-free operation
D Several sets of charged batteries

Amateurs have a long history of providing emergency communications during disasters. Charged batteries and rapidly-deployable antennas are useful station accessories.

Have useful antennas ready

B-2-8-8 (C) Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency?
A A three-element Yagi
B A three-element quad
C A dipole
D A parabolic dish

Amateurs have a long history of providing emergency communications during disasters. Charged batteries and rapidly-deployable antennas are useful station accessories.

Tools

Azimuthal maps and directionality (5 questions)

B-2-9-2 (D) What is an azimuthal map?
A A map projection centered on the North Pole
B A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator
D A map projection centered on a particular location, used to determine the shortest path between points on the Earth’s surface

An ‘Azimuthal Map’ centered on your location is convenient to determine beam headings (i.e., where to orient a directional antenna) for the shortest distance to a given point on Earth ( the ‘Short Path’ ). The ‘Long Path’ is precisely 180 degrees in the opposite direction ( sometimes propagation conditions provide a path around the globe to a particular location ).

B-2-9-3 (B) What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
A Topographical
B Azimuthal
C Mercator
D Polar projection

An ‘Azimuthal Map’ centered on your location is convenient to determine beam headings (i.e., where to orient a directional antenna) for the shortest distance to a given point on Earth ( the ‘Short Path’ ). The ‘Long Path’ is precisely 180 degrees in the opposite direction ( sometimes propagation conditions provide a path around the globe to a particular location ).

B-2-9-4 (C) A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path heading?
A 90 degrees
B 270 degrees
C 180 degrees
D 45 degrees

An ‘Azimuthal Map’ centered on your location is convenient to determine beam headings (i.e., where to orient a directional antenna) for the shortest distance to a given point on Earth ( the ‘Short Path’ ). The ‘Long Path’ is precisely 180 degrees in the opposite direction ( sometimes propagation conditions provide a path around the globe to a particular location ).

B-2-9-6 (D) You hear other local stations talking to radio amateurs in New Zealand but you don’t hear those stations with your beam aimed on the normal compass bearing to New Zealand. What should you try?
A Point your antenna toward Newington, Connecticut
B Point your antenna to the north
C Point your antenna to the south
D Point your beam 180 degrees away from that bearing and listen for the stations arriving on the “long-path”

An ‘Azimuthal Map’ centered on your location is convenient to determine beam headings (i.e., where to orient a directional antenna) for the shortest distance to a given point on Earth ( the ‘Short Path’ ). The ‘Long Path’ is precisely 180 degrees in the opposite direction ( sometimes propagation conditions provide a path around the globe to a particular location ).

B-2-9-8 (D) Why would it be useful to have an azimuthal world map centred on the location of your station?
A Because it looks impressive
B Because it shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
C Because it shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite moves west
D Because it shows the compass bearing from your station to any place on Earth, for antenna planning and pointing

An ‘Azimuthal Map’ centered on your location is convenient to determine beam headings (i.e., where to orient a directional antenna) for the shortest distance to a given point on Earth ( the ‘Short Path’ ). The ‘Long Path’ is precisely 180 degrees in the opposite direction ( sometimes propagation conditions provide a path around the globe to a particular location ).

QSL cards

B-2-9-1 (D) What is a “QSL card”?
A A Notice of Violation from Industry Canada
B A postcard reminding you when your certificate will expire
C A letter or postcard from an amateur pen pal
D A written proof of communication between two amateurs

A ‘QSL Card’ is a postcard-sized confirmation of a radio contact.

B-2-9-5 (C) What method is used by radio amateurs to provide written proof of communication between two amateur stations?
A A radiogram sent over the CW traffic net
B A packet message
C A signed post card listing contact date, time, frequency, mode and power, called a “QSL card”
D A two-page letter containing a photograph of the operator

A ‘QSL Card’ is a postcard-sized confirmation of a radio contact.

logbooks are useful, but no longer required

B-2-9-7 (C) Which statement about recording all contacts and unanswered “CQ calls” in a station logbook or computer log is not correct?
A A well-kept log preserves your fondest amateur radio memories for years
B A log is important for handling neighbour interference complaints
C A logbook is required by Industry Canada
D A log is important for recording contacts for operating awards

key words: NOT CORRECT. A logbook is no longer a legal requirement.

beacons exist

B-2-3-11 (A) What is the best method to tell if a band is “open” for communication with a particular distant location?
A Listen for signals from that area from an amateur beacon station or a foreign broadcast or television station on a nearby frequency
B Ask others on your local 2 metre FM repeater
C Telephone an experienced local amateur
D Look at the propagation forecasts in an amateur radio magazine

‘Beacons’ are one-way automated stations maintained by amateurs which operate on known frequencies to permit evaluating propagation conditions.

Times are logged in UTC, which you can hear on time signal stations.

B-2-9-9 (A) Station logs and confirmation (QSL) cards are always kept in UTC (Universal Time Coordinated). Where is that time based?
A Greenwich, England
B Geneva, Switzerland
C Ottawa, Canada
D Newington, Connecticut

“Coordinated Universal Time”, the international time standard. “UTC” is not a true acronym; it is a variant of Universal Time, UT, and has a modifier C (for “coordinated”) appended to it. Has replaced Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is mean solar time at the Royal Greenwich Observatory in Greenwich, England, which by convention is at 0 degrees geographic longitude.

B-2-9-10 (C) When referring to contacts in the station log, what do the letters UTC mean?
A Unlisted Telephone Call
B Unlimited Time Capsule
C Universal Time Coordinated (formerly Greenwich Mean Time - GMT)
D Universal Time Constant

“Coordinated Universal Time”, the international time standard. “UTC” is not a true acronym; it is a variant of Universal Time, UT, and has a modifier C (for “coordinated”) appended to it. Has replaced Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is mean solar time at the Royal Greenwich Observatory in Greenwich, England, which by convention is at 0 degrees geographic longitude.

B-2-9-11 (D) To set your station clock accurately to UTC, you could receive the most accurate time off the air from _?
A A non-directional beacon station
B Your local television station
C Your local radio station
D CHU, WWV or WWVH

CHU [Ottawa, Ontario], WWV [Fort Collins, CO] and WWVH [Kauai, HI] are stations continually broadcasting highly accurate time information.

via https://wp.rac.ca/exhaminer-v2-5/